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上海中级口译历年真题


试卷十六 (2004年9月) 上海市英语中级口译资格证书第一阶段考试
SECTION 1: LISTENING TEST (40 minutes) Part A: Spot Dictation Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear a passage and read the same passage with blanks in it. Fill in each of the blanks with the ward or words you have heard on the tape. Write your answer in the corresponding space in you ANSWER BOOKLET. Remember you will hear the passage only once. Travelling by air is one of the major conveniences of modern times. So last summer when we planned a holiday abroad, we decided to take advantage of such a modern, convenient _______ (1). We began preparations for our trip early by calling the airline and _______ (2). A few days later we received our tickets telling us our flight number and the _______ (3) from our city and arrival at our destination. We were advised to arrive at the airline terminal an hour before takeoff in order to _______ (4) for our flight, receive our _______ (5), and check our baggage. It is important not to be late, or you might miss the flight. On the day of the flight, we went to the _______ (6) where we were directed to the _______ (7) of the gate from which the airplane would depart. As we entered this area we were checked _______ (8). While we were waiting, I noticed how busy everyone was. The _______ (9) were checking the plane for last minute repairs, and a large truck was fueling the plane with gasoline to make it _______ (10). When our flight was called we _______ (11). We were pleasantly greeted by the flight attendants and offered _______ (12), drinks and food. The weather was good, and there was no _______ (13) to cause us worry or discomfort. Although our flight was _______ (14), during the holidays air travel becomes more hectic. Often airlines sell to many tickets for a flight and are then _______ (15). Some unlucky passengers will e bumped and _______ (16) on a later flight. Bad weather might also cause a later takeoff, and this delay often _______ (17) at the next stop. One of the most annoying aspects of air travel at holiday season is the possibility of _______ (18). I always try to carry with me _______ (19) for several days. On the whole, however, traveling by air is _______ (20). It is fast, safe, and usually reliable. Part B: Listening Comprehension Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short statements. These statements will be spoken ONLY ONCE, and you will not find them written on the paper; so you must listen carefully. When you hear a statement, read the answer choices and decide which one is closest in meaning to the statement you have heard. Then write the letter of the answer you have chosen in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET.
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1. (A) We can meet the chairman later. (B) The chairman rang to say that he would be late. (C) We'd better telephone the chairman now. (D) The chairman turned up half an hour earlier for the board meeting. 2. (A) I am considering Mr. Johnson for the job of accounting manager. (B) I have decided that Mr. Johnson be the branch's accounting manager. (C) Mr. Johnson is interviewing short-listed candidates I have selected for him. (D) Mr. Johnson is eager to take to position although he is not qualified for it. 3. (A) I do not weight very much. (B) It was not your fault. (C) This is no way explains the event. (D) The flame of that fire is too high. 4. (A) I want Charlie to discontinue his research project. (B) Charlie should be encouraged to work on his research project. (C) It was an honor to be able to do the research project with Charlie. (D) Charlie has a lot of courage to take on such a large research project. 5. (A) Health food experts and doctors have been testifying against the increased sales of Vitamin E. (B) Thanks to the lies of health food experts and some doctors, the sales of Vitamin E have doubled over the past five months. (C) The claims of health food experts and some doctors will help increase the sales of Vitamin E in the next five years. (D) The increased sales of Vitamin E are due to the favorable statements from health food experts and doctors. 6. (A) Our foreign experts will arrive in September to teach a three-month extension course. (B) If you have a three-month extension education, you may apply for the position. (C) Your visa will expire three weeks later, so you are not eligible for an extension. (D) Your may get an extension of your visa if you apply in due time. 7. (A) The speaker is surprised at the difficulty in developing a treatment for the common cold. (B) The speaker is watching a TV program about the development of science and technology in the last two centuries. (C) It took scientists two hundred years to develop an effective cure for the common flu. (D) Scientists gave up efforts in developing a drug to treat the common cold after two hundred years of experiment. 8. (A) Graduate students may apply for working on campus, if they are married and unable to pay for their school tuition. (B) The university offers on-campus housing to graduate students, if they can meet certain requirements. (C) If both of you register for this graduate course, you may choose to live in an on-campus apartment for less than 1700 dollars a month. (D) We charge 1700 dollars a month for the MBA course, which includes the provision of a two-bedroom on-campus apartment. 9. (A) Employees very much enjoy their trip to work. (B) Employees try to cry out to deal with their stress at work.
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(C) Employees have to commute a long way to work. (D) Employees prefer to live in the suburbs of most US cities. 10. (A) The ovens should be dispatched in no longer than two weeks. (B) The ovens should have been returned two weeks ago. (C) The ovens will be brought back for maintenance in 14 days. (D) The ovens have not been assembled until after 14 days.

2. Talks and Conversations Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks and conversations. After each of these, you will hear a few questions. Listen carefully because you will hear the talk or conversation and questions Only ONCE. When you hear a question, read the four answer choices and choose the best answer to that question. Then write the letter of the answer you have chosen in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. Questions 11-14 11. (A) Make some more coffee. (B) Leave for town. (C) Read a newspaper. (D) Offer chocolate biscuits. 12. (A) A boy was given a good beating. (B) A man with a knife was killed. (C) Some boys set up their own business. (D) Someone was attacked with a knife. 13. (A) It should be abolished. (B) It is no longer effective. (C) It is more time-consuming. (D) It should be reintroduced. 14. (A) She needs to cancel an appointment. (B) She intends to dine with Mrs. Brown. (C) She plans to call a taxi. (D) She does not believe what the man has said. Questions 15-18 15. (A) Secretary work. (B) Sales. (C) Domestic service. (D) Language teaching. 16. (A) People who come in to collect bills every weekend. (B) People employed to do housework during the week. (C) People who give help to foreign students daily. (D) People attending language courses once a week.
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17. (A) She takes care of the children. (B) She helps clean the house. (C) She lives as one member of the family. (D) She pays for her meals and accommodation. 18. (A) She wants to be in Britain to learn English. (B) She enjoys British foods and fruits very much. (C) She thinks that a British family is safer and more convenient. (D) She does not like to live on a British university campus. Questions 19-22 19. (A) Because he was worried about the rattling noise from his car. (B) Because he was sure that he would not be overcharged for the repair. (C) Because he had found a loose wire and other things that needed replacing. (D) Because he had made a bargain with the proprietor of the garage. 20. (A) In a rented car. (B) In his wife's car. (C) In his own car. (D) In Sampson's car. 21. (A) They are all efficient. (B) They are all expensive. (C) They are deceptive and dishonest. (D) They are unfriendly toward car-owners. 22. (A) They refuse to be members of the trade union. (B) They seldom offer emergency repairs to car-owners. (C) They would not allow car-owners to stand by and watch. (D) They cannot do a good job when the car-owner is in the shop. Questions 23-26 23. (A) A wide road built by the Chinese government. (B) A British concession in Shanghai. (C) The original name for the Yangtze River. (D) A small river parallel to the city wall. 24. (A) They set up concessions along some of the rivers. (B) They sold imported fruits to local people. (C) They built toll bridges across the rivers. (D) They ruled the area according to European traditions. 25. (A) Because it was a river of strategic importance for military maneuvers. (B) Because it was located between concessions and Chinese-run areas. (C) Because there was many commercial buildings on either side of its banks. (D) Because it was so deep that the foreign cargo ships could go up to unload. 26. (A) To purchase something from their fellow countrymen. (B) To bargain with native small-business people.
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(C) To draft contracts or documents for European merchants. (D) To communicate with people from European countries. Questions 27-30 27. (A) Some thieves broke into her house. (B) She had an accident during her night shift. (C) Her car broke down and she had to walk home. (D) She had valuable things stolen while she was away on duty. 28. (A) The two watches and a few earrings. (B) Her car in front of the window. (C) The Japanese-styled box on the dressing table. (D) The stereo system and the television set in the lounge. 29. (A) In her purse. (B) In her car. (C) In her desk. (D) In her dressing table. 30. (A) Because they couldn’t find any cash. (B) Because they saw the woman drive back. (C) Because they planned to be in and out very quickly. (D) Because they noticed that the woman had only a black-and-white TV set. Part C: Listening and Translation 1. Sentence Translation Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear 5 sentences in English. You will hear the sentences ONLY ONCE. After you have heard each sentence, translate it into Chinese and write your version in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

2. Passage Translation Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear 2 passages in English. You will hear the passages ONLY ONCE. After you have heard each passage, translate it into Chinese and write your version in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. You may take notes while you are listening.
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(1)

(2)

SECTION 2: STUDY SKILLS (50 minutes) Directions: In this section, you will read several passages. Each passage is followed by several questions based on its content. You are to choose ONE best answer, (A), (B), (C) or (D), to each question. Answer all the questions following each passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage and write the letter of the answer you have chosen in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. Questions 1-5 Last year more than a million and a half foreign tourists visited the United States. In order to understand intercultural problems better, and perhaps to find ways to improve the American image abroad, a reporter recently interviewed some of these visitors as they were leaving to return home. He especially wanted to find out their first impressions of the United States, what places they most enjoyed visiting, and some of their likes and dislikes. As far as first impressions are concerned, almost all of the foreigners were impressed by the tremendous size of the country. The United States, of course, is a large country. The distance between San Francisco and New York is about the same as that between Gibraltar and Baghdad. Indeed, the entire Mediterranean Sea could easily fit within the country's borders. Even expecting this, foreigners who visit the United States for the first time are overwhelmed by the vast distances. Apparently to be believed, such distances have to be traveld. The foreign visitors were also impressed by the range of climate and the variety of scenery in the country. Many were amazed to discover that, in the same day, they could travel from the snowy cold of New England winter to the sunny warmth of Florida sunshine. Even in the single state of California, they could find sandy beaches, rocky shores, tropical vegetation, hot dry deserts, redwood forests, and towering snow-capped mountains. They were also impressed by the informal friendliness of Americans. Whether on buses, trains, planes, or at vacation or scenic resorts, there visitors generally agreed that they had been greeted warmly. On the other hand, some reported that hotel clerks, waiters, and taxi drivers were often unsympathetic, impatient, and rude. The most common complaint of all was that so few Americans can speak any language but English, and some foreign visitors claimed that they had difficulty understanding the American accent. 1. What does "this" in "Even expecting this…" (para.2, line 11) refer to?
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2.

3.

4.

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(A) The distance between San Francisco and New York. (B) The vastness of the country. (C) The size of the Mediterranean Sea. (D) The country's borders. Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage? (A) New England winters are cold. (B) Some taxi drivers are impolite. (C) The U.S.A is a popular place for tourists. (D) Hotel staff are often sympathetic. New England is located _______. (A) in the south west of the US (B) to the south of California (C) in the northeast of the US (D) to the west of Florida What made the most negative impression on foreign visitors? (A) The country's vastness. (B) The informal friendliness of Americans. (C) The fact that the American accent is hard to understand. (D) The fact that not many Americans can speak a foreign language. The overall purpose of this passage is to _______. (A) demonstrate the cultural differences between America and Europe (B) indicate ways to improve the American image abroad (C) describe the general impression of foreign visitors on America (D) criticize some behaviors of American taxi drivers

Questions 6-10 A million motorists leave their cars full up with petrol and with the keys in the ignition every day. The vehicles are sitting in petrol stations while drivers pay for their fuel. The Automobile Association (AA) has discovered that cars are left unattended for an average three minutes — and sometimes considerably longer — as drivers buy drinks, sweets, cigarettes and other consumer items — and then pay at the cash till. With payment by the credit card more and more common, it is not unusually for a driver to be out of his car for as long as six minutes, providing the car thief with a golden opportunity. In an exclusive AA survey, carried out at a busy garage on a main road out of London, 300 motorists were questioned over three days of the holiday period. Twenty four percent admitted that they 'always' or 'sometimes' leave the keys in their car. This means that nationwide, a million cars daily become easy targets for the opportunist thief. For more than ten years there has been a bigger rise in car crime than in most other types of crime. An average of more than two cars a minute are broken into, vandalized or stolen in the UK. Car crime accounts for almost a third of all reported offences with no signs that the trend is slowing down. Although there are highly professional criminals involved in car theft, almost 90 percent of car crime is committed by the opportunist. Amateur thieves are aided by our own carelessness.
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When AA engineers surveyed on town center car park last year, ten percent of the cars checked were unlocked, a figure backed by a Home Office national survey that found 12 percent of drivers sometimes left their cars unlocked. The AA recommends locking up whenever you leave the car — and for however short a period. A partially open sun-roof or window is a further come-on to thieves. There are many other traps to avoid. The Home Office has found little awareness among drives about safe parking. Most motorists questioned made no efforts to avoid among drives about safe parking. Most motorists questioned made no efforts to avoid parking in quiet spots away from street lights — just the places thieves love. The AA advises drivers to park in places with people around — thieves don't like audiences. Leaving valuables in view is an invitation to the criminals. A Manchester Probationary Service research project, which interviewed almost 100 car thieves last year, found many would investigate a coat thrown on a seat. Never leave any documents showing your home address in the car. If you have a garage, use it and lock it — a garage car is at substantially less risk. 6. Which of the following statements is NOT true? (A) The use of credit cards may increase the risk of car theft. (B) It is advised that the drivers take car keys with them. (C) Most cars are stolen by professional thieves. (D) The AA advises that motorists leave their cars locked. 7. Where in the passage does the author mention leaving valuables in view is an invitation to the criminals? (A) The first paragraph. (B) The second paragraph. (C) The third paragraph. (D) The last paragraph. 8. The car theft is due to all of the following EXCEPT _______. (A) people's carelessness (B) unawareness of safe parking (C) coat left on the car seat (D) poor quality of a car lock 9. In order to prevent car theft, people are recommended to _______. (A) park cars in quiet places (B) use a garage and lock it (C) leave a spare car key at home (D) become a member of AA 10. The main purpose of this passage is to _______. (A) analyse the car theft rise in Britain (B) report the survey results by AA (C) suggest the ways to investigate car theft (D) compare car crime with other types of crime

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Questions 11-15 Travellers arriving at Heathrow airport this year have been met by the smell of freshly-cut grass, pumped from a discreet corner via an 'aroma box', a machine which blows warm, scented air into the environment. It can scent the area of an average high street shop with the smell of the chocolate, freshly-cut grass, or sea breezes, in fact any synthetic odours that can be made to smell like the real thing. Heathrow's move into 'sensory' marketing is the latest in a long line of attempts by businesses to use sensory psychology — the scientific study of the effects of the senses on our behaviour to help sell products. Marketing people call this 'atmospherics' — using sounds or smells to manipulate consumer behaviour. On Valentine's Day two years ago the chain of chemist's Superdog scented one of its London shops with chocolate. The smell of chocolate is supposed to have the effect of reducing concentration and making customers relax. 'Chocolate is associated with love', said a marketing spokeswoman, 'we thought it would get people in the mood for romance.' She did not reveal, though, whether the smell actually made people spend more money. However, research into customer satisfaction with certain scented products has clearly shown that small does have a commercial effect, though of course it must be an appropriate smell. In a survey, customers considered a lemon-scented detergent more effective than another scented with coconut despite the fact that the detergent used in both was identical. On the other hand, a coconut-scented suntan lotion was rated more effective that a lemon-scented one. A research group from Washington University reported that the smell of mint or orange sprayed in a store resulted in customers rating the store as more modern and more pleasant for shopping than other stores without the smell. Customers also rated the goods on sale as better, and expressed a stronger intention to visit the store again in the future. Music too has long been used in supermarkets for marketing purposes. Supermarkets are aware, for example, that slow music causes customers to stay longer in the shop (and hopefully buy more things). At Leicester University psychologists have found that a specific kind of music can influence consumer behaviour. In a supermarket French wine sold at the rate of 76% compared to 20% German wine when French accordion music was played. The same thing happened in reverse when German Bierkeller music was played. In one American study people even bought more expensive wines when classical music was played instead of country music. Writers and poets have often described the powerful effects of smell on our emotions, and smell is often considered to be the sense most likely to evoke emotion-filled memories. Research suggests however that this is a myth and that a photography or a voice is just as likely to evoke a memory as a smell. Perhaps the reason for this myth is because smells, as opposed to sights and sounds, are very difficult to give a name to. The fact that smell is invisible, and thus somehow more mysterious, may partly explain its reputation as our most emotional sense. 11. What is the use of "aroma box" at Heathrow airport? (A) It can scent a lot of synthetic fragrance into the environment. (B) It is a machine which blows warm and fresh air into the environment. (C) It often pumps the smell of freshly-cut grass from a high-street shop. (D) It is a box which sends out not only aroma but also music.
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12. Who might benefits most from "atmospherics" in the "sensory" marketing? (A) Psychologists. (B) Customers. (C) Shop owners. (D) The research groups. 13. Research into customer satisfaction showed that _______. (A) the right smell made people think a product was better (B) people preferred the smell of lemon to coconut (C) certain smells could make people dislike a shop (D) customers rated the goods on sale as more inviting 14. The use of music in supermarkets _______. (A) may lead customers to pay more of a product (B) can increase sales of a specific product (C) makes people buy more foreign wine (D) causes customers to buy more from in the shop 15. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true? (A) Smell is the most emotional of the senses. (B) Smell stimulates our memory more than the other senses. (C) Smell is considered to be mysterious, as it is untouchable. (D) Smell is the most difficult sense to identify. Questions 16-20 The danger of misinterpretation is greatest, of course, among speakers who actually speak different native tongues, or come from different cultural backgrounds, because cultural difference necessarily implies different assumptions about natural and obvious ways to be polite. Anthropologist Thomas Kochman gives the example of a white office worker who appeared with a bandaged arm and felt rejected because her black fellow worker didn't mention it. The doubly wounded worker assumed that her silent colleague didn't notice or didn't care. But the co-worker was purposely not calling attention to something her colleague might not want to talk about. She let her decide whether or not to mention it, being considerate by not imposing. Kochman says, based on his research, that these differences reflect recognizable black and white styles. An American woman visiting England was repeatedly offended — even, on bad days, enraged — when the British ignored her in setting in which she thought they should pay attention. For example, she was sitting at a booth in a railway-station cafeteria. A couple began to settle into the opposite seat in the same booth. They unloaded their luggage; they laid their coats on the seat; he asked what she would like to eat and went off to get it; she slid into the booth facing the American. And throughout all this, they showed no sign of having noticed that someone was already sitting in the booth. When the British woman lit up a cigarette, the American had a concrete object for her anger. She began ostentatiously looking around for another table to move to. Of course there was none; that's why the British couple had sat in her booth in the first place. The smoker immediately crushed out her cigarette and apologized. This showed that she had noticed that someone else was sitting in the booth, and that she was not inclined to disturb her. But then she went back to
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pretending the American wasn't there, a ruse in which her husband collaborated when he returned with their food and they ate it. To the American, politeness requires talk between strangers forced to share a booth in a cafeteria, if only a fleeting "Do you mind if I sit down?" or a conventional, "Is anyone sitting here?" even if it's obvious no one is. The omission of such talk seemed to her like dreadful rudeness. The American couldn't see that another system of politeness was at work. By not acknowledging here presence, the British couple freed her from the obligation to acknowledge theirs. The American expected a show of involvement; they were being polite by not imposing. An American man who had lived for years in Japan explained a similar politeness ethic. He lived, as many Japanese do, in extremely close quarters — a tiny room separated from neighbouring rooms by paper-thin walls. In this case the walls were literally made of paper. In order to preserve privacy in this most unprivate situation, his Japanese neighbour with the door open, they steadfastly glued their gaze ahead as if they were alone in a desert. The American confessed to feeling what I believe most American would feel if a next-door neighbour passed within a few feet without acknowledging their presence — snubbed. But he realized that the intention was not rudeness by omitting to show involvement, but politeness by not imposing. The fate of the earth depends on cross-cultural communication. Nations must reach agreements, and agreements are made by individual representatives of nations sitting down and talking to each other — public analogues of private conversation. The processes are the same, and so are the pitfalls. Only the possible consequences are more extreme. 16. In Thomas Kochman's example, when the white office worker appeared with a bandaged arm, why did her colleague keep silent? (A) Because she didn't care about her white colleague at all. (B) Because she was considerate by imposing on her. (C) Because she didn't want to embarrass her white colleague. (D) Because she was aware of their different cultural backgrounds. 17. What is the best definition for the word "imposing" in paragraph 2? (A) Unreasonably expecting someone to do something. (B) Using your authority to make sure a rule is kept. (C) Acting in a grand, impressive way. (D) Causing troubles to oneself. 18. Which of the following can he concluded from the passage? (A) The British would like to avoid talking to strangers in public. (B) The American would like to be imposed in different settings. (C) The British expect a small talk between strangers who are forced to share a booth in a cafeteria. (D) The American enjoy being ignored in unfamiliar settings. 19. What seems to be 'Japanese' behaviour in order to preserve privacy in close quarters? (A) They would separate their rooms by paper-thin walls. (B) They act as if they have never known someone living next to them. (C) They are very friendly and considerate to their neighbours. (D) They pull their face long and glue steadfastly their gaze ahead. 20. Which of the following can serve as the best title for the passage?
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(A) An American Woman's Overseas Experience (B) The Cultural Wave (C) Mixed Metamesssage across Cultures (D) Pitfalls and Possible Consequences Questions 21-25 Local government in Britain is the responsibility of elected local authorities, which provide local services under specific powers conferred by Parliament. Government on a local basis can be traced back at least 1,000 years, but this concept of a comprehensive system of councils locally elected to manage various services provided for the benefit of the community was first cooperated into law in the late nineteenth century. The local authorities' major responsibilities nowadays include education, housing, the police, environmental health, personal social services, traffic administration, town and country planning, fire services, libraries and many minor functions. There are 6 metropolitan local authorities, and Greater London and the remaining 47 'non-metropolitan' authorities, or counties. Each separate authority has power to levy a 'rate' (a form of local property tax) to pay for the work for which it has responsibility. Rates are a local tax paid by the occupiers of non-agricultural land and building in a local authority area as contributions to the cost of local services. The amount paid by the individual depends on the value of the property in relation to the total sum needed by the authority. Total expenditure by local authorities in England and Wales exceeds ?9,000 million a year. A clear distinction is made between capital expenditure and current expenditure. Capital expenditure (about a quarter of the total) is normally financed by borrowing. current expenditure is financed from three main sources: local rates; Government grants, in the form of a 'rate support' grant, and grants towards the cost of specific services; other income, including rents from local authority-owned properties. Housing and education are the two major areas for which local authorities are responsible. Each local authority area is divided into two districts — 36 in metropolitan counties, 296 in nonmetropolitan counties. The heavily populated metropolitan districts (e.g. Birmingham, population 1.1 million) have the resources to undertake provision of services such as education and personal social services which the majority of non-metropolitan districts could not undertake. County and district councils consists of directly elected councilors. Broadly speaking, county councils have 60-100 members, metropolitan district councils 50-80 members, non-metropolitan district councils 30-60 members. The councilors elect annually one of their members as chairman. On certain district councils with historical status the chairman is called 'mayor' or 'Lord Mayor'. This has ceremonial significance, but makes no difference to the administrative functions of the area. Councillors are voluntary and unpaid, though they claim an attendance allowance of up to ?10 a day. All county councils are elected at four-yearly intervals. The pattern of election to district councils varies. All local elections due in any one year are held on the same day, normally the first Thursday in May. The people entitled to vote at local government elections are those who are resident in the local authority area on the qualifying date, are 18 or over on election day, are British subjects or citizens of the Irish Republic (this will therefore include Commonwealth citizens e.g. Australians). Candidates for councilors must have British nationality and be over 21,
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and must either have lived or worked in the area for a year. Most candidates stand as representatives of one of the national political parties (Labour, SDP, Conservatives or Liberal for the most part), a few as members of associations representing some local interests or as independents. 21. What are NOT included in the functions of local authorities according to the passage? (A) environment health and education. (B) housing and country development planning. (C) local libraries and the police. (D) court and charity organizations. 22. How does the government work out the amount of the "rate" paid by the individuals? (A) It depends on how many properties the individual own and the amount the authority needs. (B) It is calculated by the value of the property and the total sum needed by the authority. (C) It depends on the annual income of the individual and the value of the property. (D) It is calculated by the family annual income and the total sum needed by the authority. 23. How often are county council elections held? (A) Every four years. (B) Every two years. (C) Twice a year. (D) Four times a year. 24. According to the passage, directly elected councilors _______. (A) can claim an attendance allowance of more than ?10 a day (B) would elect one of their members as 'mayor' every two years (C) will do the voluntary work and are not paid (D) must have either British or Irish nationality 25. Which of the following candidates is eligible for the election of councilors? (A) A 20-year-old British who has been living in the area for a year. (B) A 30-year-old Englishman who has moved to the area half a year ago. (C) A 40-year-old British who has been working in the area for 2 years. (D) A 50-year-old Irishman who has been working and living in the area for 3 years. Questions 26-30 Myrna Blyth spent more than 20 years as a top magazine editor. So she knows a thing to two about how the media uses stress, fear and the ultimately fruitless pursuit of perfection to sell stories. In her controversial new book, Blyth offers some tips about how not to get spun by what you see or read. Secret 1 Stress happens Stress has become an all-purpose gimmick to get our attention. Many magazines and TV shows love nothing more than suggesting that we can't make it through the day without practically dying from stress. Yes we all have stress. But not all day, not every day. I find it downright insulting to hear that we can't keep it together when we're merely going about our
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good, if sometimes complicated, lives. The newest research says that the best way to handle stress is not by checking into a day spa or a holiday resort where the end goal is stress reduction. That sort of binge-and-purge approach does little to keep us relaxed. Instead, we should simply acknowledge that life is full of little tensions because, hey, that's life. And we should handle it moment by moment the way people always have, by taking a deep breath and getting some perspective. Secret 2 Check "balance" Stop worrying about achieving balance in your life, especially when you have kids. Kids take up all available time — it's the basic law of parenthood. No matter how much time you give them, whether you work from eight to eight or are around the house all the time, you'll still feel you haven't been there enough for them. Here is the deal: while your children are around, you won't have time to put your life in perfect balance. That's really not so terrible. You are supposed to think more about your kids than about yourself. Trust me, you'll have time after they've left home. Secret 3 Be fear less When it wants to make a big impression, the media isn't shy about scaring us out of our wits. Reporting and pessimism have become totally intertwined in so many areas, especially in stories about health and environment. We're supposed to fear everything, from killer celery to weapons of mass destruction. How to protect yourself from the effects of these constant guerrilla tactics? Kimberly Thompson of the Harvard School of Public Health suggests remembering that how we perceive and process information depends upon how it's presented, positively or negatively. If you hear about a small number of people stricken by a rare illness, it follows, doesn't it, that a large number of people (including you) are perfectly fine. Remember, almost all media scare stories are about something dastardly that happened to a very small group of people, like the unlucky women who happened to share the same infected foot basin in just one nail salon in California. In your fight against fear: Compare the hype to the fact. A little healthy skepticism is in order. Be wary of pictures. Just because someone's crying doesn't necessarily mean she's telling the truth. Don't let impressive-sounding jargon convince you. Watch the disclaimers. "Might" or "could" doesn't mean that you or your family are really at risk. Secret 4 Nobady's perfect Here's what a lot of the media want us to believe: One day, we'll get everything right about our appearance. Our hair will look fabulous, our skin will be smooth and crease-free. We'll look so good we'll have made over not just our looks but our lives. Of course, we all want to look good, but without going to extremes or over budget. The people important to you — the ones who are in your life — already like the way you look. And better yet, they like you more for what's going on inside than what can be seen on the outside.

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26. What do you think is the best title for this passage? (A) Stress, Lies and the Media. (B) How to Avoid Telling the Truth. (C) Don't Be Afraid of Scary Stories. (D) Stress, Freedom and the Media. 27. "Binge-and-purge approach" (para.3) refers to a way to reduce stress by ______. (A) getting drunk (B) having a kind of relaxation (C) embarking on a short holiday (D) acknowledging that life is life 28. Which of the following is NOT suggested as a good way to overcome fear? (A) Remember that reporting and pessimism have become totally intertwined. (B) Don't believe words or phrases that sound impressive. (C) Pray that you won't be among a small number of unlucky people. (D) Be a little skeptical about the media blitz of bad news about your life. 29. This passage is most helpful for readers who _______. (A) have no confidence in their appearance (B) are worried about achieving balance in their lives (C) are dying from stress (D) perceive and process information in a pessimistic way 30. We can infer from the passage that _______. (A) good look will make over our lives (B) stress is a natural part of human existence (C) parents will never find enough time with their kids (D) anything scaring only happens to a small number of people SECTION 3: TRANSLATION TEST (1) (30 minutes) Directions: Translate the following passage into Chinese and write your version in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET As individuals and as a nation, we're defined by the choices we make. And too often, by the tough decisions we avoid. Most of us have avoided even thinking about how our rapidly growing population is affecting our quality of life and shaping our society. Our population has more than doubled since World War II, and at this rate, we could be on our way to 1 billion people living in the United States by the end of the century. Our population growth, driven in part by unchecked immigration, is already straining our healthcare and educational systems and, less noticeably — but far more important — putting a heavy burden on our natural resources. All these pressures on our resources will only worsen unless our leaders begin a national dialogue on the future of this country and start making the tough choices. Politicians are avoiding debate on these issues because they are the most difficult ones to confront. In campaign debating, these are wedge issues. But failure to come to terms with them will drive a wedge between all of us and a prosperous, healthy future for this country.
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SECTION 4: TRANSLATION TEST (2) (30 minutes) Directions: Translate the following passage into English and write your version in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. 本公司成立于1988年。经过不断发展,目前公司下属全资专业从事工程施工的单位有 4家,公司参股的企业有3家。公司拥有一大批技术人员和管理人员,其中有中高级专业职 称的占65%。雄厚的技术力量和科学的管理为公司的健康发展奠定了坚实的基础。 不断深化的社会主义市场经济为公司的生存和发展提供了更大的机遇和空间。近年 来,公司先后参与承建了一大批上海市重大工程,为建设国际大都市作出了应有的贡献。

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上海外语口译
2005 年春季英语中级口译第一阶段考试(试卷) TEST BOOK

SECTION 1: LISTENING TEST
(45 minutes) Part A: Spot Dictation Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear a passage and read the same passage with blanks in it. Fill in each of the blanks with the word or words you have heard on the tape. Write your answer in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. Remember you will hear the passage ONLY ONCE. As crime skyrockets in many communities, people are finally beginning to look for long-lasting. Effective answers to stem the tide of juvenile crime. Reaching the youth who have committed a crime before they become ________(1) is an essential step in reversing the crime trend. One _______(2) may be the establishment of teen court. Teen court is known as a sentencing court for youths who have _______(3). Teen courts primarily deal with first-time offenders. After arrest, the young offender must _________(4) to the charge in juvenile court. With ________(5), the offender agrees to be sentenced and abide by the decision of peer jury __________(6). Another essential component to teen court is that, as part of the sentence, the offender must sit in on one of more future peer juries to _________(7) for other offenders. For example, a county teen court in lllinois gives young offenders a chance to ________(8) their arrests from their permanent record by _________(9) or other duties ordered by the court. Teen court is not a trial court. All teens admit their guilt and _________(10) a sentence given to them by a jury of their peers. A judge is present to _________(11) of the court. The teen court alleviates the strain on the _________(12) and has been implemented in __________(13) since the first teen court opened in Odessa, Texas. Beside giving the offender a second chance, it gives the youth_________(14) in the judicial process. The purpose of the teen court, aside from sentencing youth offenders, is to ________(15) both the offenders and the teen volunteers while simultaneously promoting __________(16) between defendants, the community, and the police. By offering this _________(17) system, teen court allows those teens who have made a bad decision an opportunity to ________(18) and learn from it. At the same time those teens learn________(19). The police, the community, and the ________(20). Part B: Listening Comprehension

1. Statements Directions: in this part of the test, you will hear several short statements. These statements will be spoken ONLY ONCE, and you will not find them written on the paper; so you must listen carefully. When you hear a statement, read the answer choices and decide which one is closest in meaning to the statement you have heard. Then write the letter of the answer you have chosen in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. 1. (A) You’d better buy a local newspaper to look through the classified ads. (B) You might put an ad in the local paper to find someone to fill the position. (C) You can come this afternoon to go through the application procedures. (D) You need to interview the well-known painter in our office this afternoon. 2. (A) David will be the general manager next week. (B) David will get a promotion and a pay rise. (C) David will work hard to be a general manager. (D) David will be transferred to the accounting manager’s office. 3. (A) No one in this office is willing to the translation except yourself. (B) The new secretary will ask someone to fix the date for you. (C) The new secretary can type and hand in the document for you. (D) The secretary is an able person to help you with the translation. 4. (A) I paid 4 dollars for the shrimp. (B) I paid 6 dollars for the shrimp. (C) I paid 8 dollars for the shrimp. (D) I paid 12 dollars for the shrimp. 5. (A) Although you pay more for the course, you have a better chance of securing a job. (B) You will not be enrolled in the course, unless you score high in the placement test. (C) Your job is to locate excellent students and urge them to enroll in our MBA course. (D) You will be awarded a scholarship for the MBA curse if your high school record is excellent. 6. (A) It would be a win-win situation for both of us if we set up an agency for marketing your products. (B)) We believe that marketing your products on your behalf in Shanghai would be rather costly in the beginning. (C) It is our firm belief that we will bring a lot of benefit to your agency in Shanghai. (D) We totally agree to market your products in Shanghai if your firm can set up an agency on our behalf. 7. (A) The customer must pay cash for his insurance. (B) The customer must pay for his insurance by credit card. (C) The customer must get a money order to pay for his insurance. (D) The customer must get a traveler’s check to pay for his insurance. 8. (A) The accountant is to return 300,000 dollars to balance your account. (B) The check has bounced because of insufficient fund in the account.

(C) The accountant has checked in for a conference on environmental protection. (D) The check is specially provided to make a balance on your bank account. 9. (A) We are likely to have further cooperation if the objective is achieved. (B) If the target is missed, we will discuss with you a long-term arrangement. (C) We will establish a cooperative base in the locality if this target is attained. (D) We are glad to have signed with you a long-term arrangement. 10. (A) The investment Department submitted a survey report to the board of directors. (B) The investment Department refuted the decision made by the board of directors. (C) The board of directors could not agree on the content of the survey report. (D) The board of directors were not concerned with the Department’s survey report. 2. Talks and Conversations Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks and conversations. After each of these, you will hear a few questions. Listen carefully because you will hear the talk or conversation and questions ONLY ONCE. When you hear a question, read the four answer choices and choose the best answer to that question. Then write the letter of the answer you have chosen in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. Questions 11-14 11. (A) In London. (B) In Edinburgh. (C) In Paris. (D) In this friend’s home. 12. (A) He went to sleep because he was very tired. (B) He had a fight with his friends. (C) He did some shopping. (D) He went to a night club. 13. (A) The man missed his return flight. (B) The man watched a rugby match in the afternoon. (C) The man went to see some tourist attractions. (D) The man bought some gifts for his parents and friends. 14. (A) Because he wanted go buy more presents for her. (B) Because he had to pay for the French wine he bought for her. (C) Because he had spent all his money over the weekend. (D) Because he had planned to go to Edinburgh next weekend. Questions 15-18 15. (A) They are built only for children or teenagers. (B) They provide scary and frightening experiences. (C) They never allow adults to participate. (D) They seldom help adults to reduce weight. 16. (A) Pay his telephone bills.

(B) Work out his daily agenda. (C) Consult a health-care worker. (D) Enjoy food to his heart’s content. 17. (A) Because they feel it necessary to set an example for their children. (B) Because they consider it to be the safest for their children. (C) Because they think the fide can help reduce their weights. (D) Because they want to prove themselves to be adventurous. 18. (A) They can have a guilt-free experience. (B) They can refrain from eating junk food. (C) They can keep their children company. (D) They can escape from daily work and pressures. Questions 19-22 19. (A) Shop-assistant and customer. (C) Police and pedestrian 20. (A) An item of clothing (B) An Olympic record. 21. (A) A book and a record. (C) Skirts and socks. 22. (A) Go sightseeing at Piccadilly. (C) Enjoy a funny French show.

(B) Husband and wife. (D) Travel guide and tourist. (B) A bottle of after-shave. (D) A pair of socks. (B) Perfume. (D) A ticket to see the circus. (B) Have a cup of English tea. (D) Return to the hotel and take a rest.

Questions 23-26 23. (A) Marketing does more harm than good to customers. (B) Marketing just means that businesses sell their products. (C) Marketing is something very one of us does quite often. (D) Marketing includes a variety of business activities. 24. (A) When you are shortlisted for an interview. (B) When you are watching television at home. (C) When you have asked to borrow a bicycle. (D) When you have concluded a medical research. 25. (A) When you are applying for a job. (B) When you are paying your tuition fee. (C) When you are riding a bus. (D) When you are interviewing candidates. 26. (A) The promotion of ideas. (B) The pricing of goods. (C) The exchange process. (D) The product distributions. Questions 27-30 27. (A) They are bored. (C) They demand shorter hours. 28. (A) Car making. (C) Cotton textile. 29. (A) Fight for markets.

(B) They want a wage increase. (D) They like to beat their rivals. (B) Tourism. (D) Electronics. (B) Be more inventive and innovative.

(C) Expand into IT industry. 30. (A) Thank you. (C) Quite good.

(D) Be honest and fair in business dealings. (B) Average. (D) Excellent.

Part C: Listening and Translation 1. Sentence Translation Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear 5 sentences in English. You will hear the sentences ONLY ONCE. After you have heard each sentence, translate it into Chinese and write your version in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

2. Passage Translation Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear 2 passages in English. You will hear the passages ONLY ONCE. After you have heard each passage, translate it into Chinese and write your version in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. You may take notes while you are listening. (1) (2)

SECTION 2: STUDY SKILLS
(50 minutes) Directions: In this section, you will read several passages. Each passage is followed by several questions based on its content. You are to choose ONE best answer. (A), (B), (c) or (D), to each question. Answer all the questions following each passage on the basis of what is stated of implied in that passage and write the letter of the answer you have chosen in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. Questions 1-5 Pollution control is management of waste materials in order to minimize the effects of pollutants on people and the environment. The quality of human health and of the natural environment depends on adequate pollution control. In the United States much has been done to control the more noticeable pollutants since 1965: more subtle yet still hazardous pollutants, however, remain to be adequately controlled. Four general approaches to pollution control are: the intermittent reduction of industrial activities during periods of high air-pollution conditions; wider dispersion of pollutants using such devices as taller smokestacks; reduction of pollutants in industrial emission; and change of an industrial process or activity in order to produce less pollution. Taller smokestacks may reduce the concentrations to which local

people are exposed, but they are ineffective in reducing overall pollution. Pollutants removed from waste flows to reduce emissions to air and water may be disposed of by burial or storage on land, practices that pose potential hazards, recent legislation requiring extensive emissions reductions has resulted in large investments in pollution-treatment technologies. The fourth approach-changing a manufacturing process or activity in order to produce less pollution-may involve either the production of fewer residuals, by means of an improved process, or the separation and reuse of materials from the waste stream. This method of pollution control is the most effective and, as the costs of pollution control and waste disposal increase, is considered one of the most efficient. Pollution-treatment systems have been effective in reducing the massive quantities of water and air pollutants that have clogged and choked urban areas. Although the improvements have been significant, recent pollution-control legislation aims to go further in order to control the less visible but often hazardous chemical and gaseous pollutants that still contaminate many waterways and urban atmospheres. The costs of pollution control-resulting from capital, maintenance, and labor costs, as well as from the cost of additional residuals disposal-generally go up rapidly as a greater percentage of residuals is removed from the waste stream. Damage from pollution, on the other hand, goes down as a greater amount of contaminant is removed. Theoretically, the level of treatment should correspond to a point at which total costs of treatment and of damage to the environment are minimized or the benefits of further treatment are proportionally much smaller than the increased cost. In reality, costs or damages resulting from pollution can rarely be assessed in terms of dollars. 1. According to the passage. All of the following can be objectives of pollution control EXCEPT________. (A) reducing polluting substances (B) controlling all the pollutants (C) restricting industrial activities (D) improving the environment and human health 2. What does the author think of the second approach to pollution control? (A) it is the most effective of the fore. (B) it is effective in some way. (C) it is economical but not at all effective. 3. According to the passage, recent pollution-control legislation aims to _______. (A) control less visible as well as less hazardous chemical pollutants. (B) increase the costs of pollution control and waste material disposal. (C) have more strict control over less evident but often dangerous pollutants. (D) eliminate all the hazardous chemical and gaseous pollutants. 4. Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the passage? (A) Laws have been made to develop pollution-treatment systems. (B) Pollution-treatment systems have been effective in reducing the massive quantities of water and air pollutants.

(C) Materials from waste treatment processes can be made useful again. (D) The cost of pollution treatment is proportionally smaller than that of damage to the environment. 5. The overall purpose of the passage is _______. (A) to discuss the ways of and problems in pollution control (B) to give suggestions about pollution control legislation (C) to compare and contrast the fore approaches to pollution control (D) to describe what has been achieved in pollution control Questions 6-10 Democracy is so much a part of our national identity that it almost seems a birthright. But the irony is that, even as we hope to spread democracy elsewhere, we risk preaching the virtues of a form of government we no longer practice ourselves. The upcoming elections, our proudest celebration of democracy, will highlight some of the threats to our government “by the people”. Technically, every vote is counted. But will the ballot you cast really make a difference? Not likely, unless you live in one of about 17 battleground states where the contest between President Bush and Senator Kerry could easily go either way. If you come from a state that is already locked up by one of the parties and most of us do-your vote won’t carry much weight. That’s because of our idiosyncratic electoral college system. Rather than being elected directly by the people, the President would be chosen by a group of electors appointed by the state legislatures-with the number of electors determined by the state’s total number of representatives to Congress and U.S. Senators. By allotting two Senators to each state, our founders enabled small states to wield an influence greater than their populations alone would warrant, ensuring that the most populous states wouldn’t decide every Presidential election. But here’s the rub: When it comes to those electoral votes, it’s winner-take-all (except in Maine, and Nebraska). Get more popular votes, even if only by one, and you grab all of the state’s electoral votes. There’s yet another way that the electoral system undermines our vote. In 2000, the Presidential campaigns largely ignore the 33 states that weren’t up for grabs. Even California, Texas and New York-states offering many electoral votes but little partisan competition-fell by the wayside. If victory or defeat depended on the popular vote, then candidates would have to work for each one. Instead, they decide which states are in play, and go after the voter there. They rarely visit other places and the majority of us don’s experience a real campaign. Here’s one idea that could help us in future Presidential elections. In a number of countries, they have a system of direct popular vote, but with a critical provision, in the event that no one wins by a majority, they hold an “instant runoff”. That’s done by allowing voters to register not only their first choice among the candidates, by also their second and third. if a runoff is needed (say, if the winner among several candidates has less than 50 percent of vote). You can eliminate the candidate with the lowest tally, and transfer his or her supporters to the second choice

on their ballots. This process can play out until there is a clear victor. This system give weight to every person’s vote-something our system of electors will never do. Only a Constitutional amendment, however, can bring about this change. 6. The function of the quotation mark in the last sentence of the 1st paragraph is to _________. (A) quote what somebody has said (B) emphasize the threats (C) achieve sarcasm (D) create a sense of humor 7. The 17 states the candidates would visit in the campaign are those _____. (A) locked up by one of the parties (B) offering many electoral votes (C) that could easily fall by the wayside (D) where the competition could easily way 8. The word “rub” in the 3rd paragraph most probably means____. (A) the act of rubbing (B) the trouble (C) the solution (D) the conflicting idea 9. Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the passage? (A) some popular votes may carry more weight than others. (B) the outcome of the election depends on the electoral votes. (C) one can win the election only by getting more popular votes. (D) the electoral system prevents the most populous states from deciding every election. 10. Which of the following is the best title for this passage? (A) is popular Vote More Democratic? (B) our Election System: A True Democracy (C) How to Battle Threats to Our Democracy (D) How Much Does Your Vote Really Count? Questions 11-15 Americans are far more sophisticated about beverages than they were 20 years ago. Witness the Starbucks revolution and you’ll know where the trend goes. Now, spurred on by recent studied suggesting that it can cut the risk of cancer and heart disease and retard the aging process, tea is enjoying a similar jolt. Enough chic tea salons are springing up to make even die-hard coffee drinkers consider switching beverages. Tea is available in more places than ever. “tea was one of the most prolific beverage categories in 1999.” With 24 percent more products offered over the previous year, reports Tom Vierhile of Marketing Intelligence Service, which tracks food and beverage trends. And the tea Association of the United States reports that from 1990 to 1999, annual sales of the drink grew to $4.6 billion from $1.8 billion.

“Green tea is seen by consumers as a ‘functional food’-delivering health benefits beyond sustenance,” says Vierhile. Recently published studies point out that not all brews are created equal. Only teas that come from the leaves of the plant Camellia sinensis -Which, in their raw state are brewed to make green tea, and, with curing, can be turned into oolong and black tea leaves-have been shown to contain health benefits. Other herbal teas and infusions may taste good, yet they do little more than warm up the drinker. But for Camellia sinensis, the evidence is powerful. In a 1998 study, Harvard University researchers found that drinking one cup of black tea a day lowered the risk of heart attack by as much as 44percent compared with non-tea drinkers, and other studies have suggested that the antioxidants in these so-called real teas can also prevent cancer. One such antioxidant in green tea is ECGC, a compound 20 times as powerful as vitamin E and 200 times as powerful as vitamin C. “When people ask me for something good and cheep they can do to reduce their cancer risk, I tell them drink real tea.” Says Mitchell Gaynor, director of medical oncology at New York City’s Strang-Cornell Cancer Prevention Centre. Among those inspired to become a green-tea drinker is Tess Ghilaga. A new York Writer who took it up after consulting a nutritionist six years ago. “I’ve never been a coffee drinker..” says Ghilage, 33, “she told me to start drinking green tea for the antioxidant properties.” Now Ghilaga and her husband routinely brew tea –they order theirs from Inpursuitoftea.com, an internet tea company, which sells a variety of ready-made and raw teas. www.alitea.com Along with green, black, and oolong tea, this company sells a wide variety of herbal teas and offers a “Tea of the Month” club. www.teasofgreen.com this site sells higher-end green. Black and oolong teas and has good tips on proper storage and preparation of tea. www.tea.com Tea drinkers can find links to sites offering tea lore, such as articles about tea ceremonies in foreign lands. An exhaustive “frequently asked questions” file founds out the site. 11. What do recent studies reveal about tea drinking? (A) Many tea houses have sprung up to meet the market demands. (B) Drinking tea can cut the risk of lung cancer in particular (C) Tea is rather a magical drinking material to slow down the aging process. (D) Many die-hard coffee brewers have developed strong sentiments towards tea. 12. What did Tom Vierhile of Marketing Intelligence Service do, according to the passage? (A) He reported about the availability of all kinds of tea around the world. (B) He tracked the sources of tea and other beverages in Asian countries. (C) He gave a detailed analysis of professional categorization of tea and other beverages. (D) He followed the trends of tea and other beverages and analyse them in a professional way.

13. The leaves of the plant Camellia sinensis ______. (A) can be used to make green tea or black tea after proper treatments (B) are turned into oolong or black tea leaves for the purpose of curing (C) have powerful evidence to show its healing power for certain illnesses (D) taste good yet do little more than warm up the drinker 14. According to the passage, what is ECGC? (A) A medicine made from green tea. (B) A powerful substance in green tea. (C) An additive essential to green tea. (D) A special treatment to make green tea. 15. If you are interested in tea festivals, which website would you most probably surf on? (A) www.tea.com (B) www.teasofgreen.com (C) www.Inpursuitoftea.com (D) www.alitea.com Questions 16-20 A blue sedan nearly sideswipes my car. The driver gives me a weird look. No wonder : I’m at the wheel of a Ford Taurus, with a tangle of wires taped to my face and neck, a respiration monitor strapped around my chest, and a bunch of other gizmos sending data about my vital signs to computers stacked on the front and back seats. I look like the star of A Commuter’s Clockwork Orange. University of lower assistant professor of engineering Thomas Schnell is crammed into the seat behind me. Schnell created this lab-on –wheels to gauge how a motorist’s body reacts to driving . He wants carmakers to use his findings to design “smart ”cars that make driving less stressful. I’m taking his rolling research facility of a white-knuckle evening spin in Chicago—home to some of the nation’s worst rush-hour traffic-to learn what happens to the human body during a long, frustrating commute. So at 5:15 on a Monday, with a storm whipping in off Lake Michigan. I pull out of a downtown parking lot and begin creeping along interstate 90, heading west behind a line of cars that stretches as far as the eye can see. Now and then, the pace picks up, just as quickly, it slows to a halt ,red brake lights glowing in the twilight. If I had to do this every day, I’d grind my teeth to dust. After 45minutes,

Schnell and I have gone just 10 miles. As the car crawls along. Schnell occasionally asks, “What is your level of fun?” He notes my responses, some of them unprintable,

on a clipboard. Here’s what the computers I’m tethered to record: I begin breathing harder and faster. My respiration rate leaps from 12 to 17 breaths per minute. My heat rate jumps from 74 to 80 beats per minute. The electrodes taped to the muscles in my forehead show increased activity (Translation : My brow furrows and I squint a lot) While I was in no danger of keeling over, my heart rate and other symptoms offered clear evidence that I was under stress, says Robert Bonow, MD, president of the American Heart Association (AHA). Over time, that stress could take a heavy toll. If you are among the roughly 113 million Americans who drive to work each day. You’re probably grimacing with recognition. With traffic congestion getting worse each year, anyone who travels by car to the office or plant, or who simply shuttles kids from school to violin lessons to slumber parties, may be exposing himself or herself to serious hidden health threats. All that commuter combat is bound to produce casualties. “People are experiencing more congestion and we know that’s stressful, ”says Colorado State University psychologist Jerry Diefenbaker. Some results are predictable. Reckless driving –sometimes in the form of so-called road rage-is often spurred by traffic frustration. Consider 41-year –old Chris Heard. The mild-mannered engineer used to turn into Mad Max every day as he drove the nearly 50 miles of clogged roads between his home in Brookline, N. H. ,and his office near Boston. “it turned me into a very aggressive driver, ” he says, “taking risks, cutting people off, driving fast on back roads to make up for time I lost , “the result of his congestion-fueled fury ? A stack of speeding tickets and a number of near collisions. Finally he did something about it : He found a job closer to home.

16. According to the passage, Professor Thomas Schnell has created his lab-on –wheels_________. (A) to make heart jump from 74 to 80 beats per minute (B) to make respiration rate leap from 12 to 17 breaths per minute (C) to learn how to make driving enjoyable during rush-hour traffic (D) to learn how a driver physically reacts to driving 17. Why was the author driving along interstate 90 on a Monday? (A ) He was test-driving his smart cat.

(B) He liked to pick up his driving skill. (C) He did not want to be caught in the storm. (D) He was dong it a test. 18. The phrase ″take heavy″(para.6) is closest in meaning to ____. (A) grind one’s teeth (B) damage one’s health (C) increase one’s activity (D) pay more at the toll gate 19. Which of the following in NOT true about 41-year-old Chris Heard? (A) He used to play a role in a movie. (B) He got a stack of speeding tickets. (C) He found a job closer to home. (D) He had a number of near collisions. 20. What is the best title for the passage? (A) Are You a Reckless Driver? (B) How Do You Improve Your Driving Skill? (C) Are you Driving Yourself Sick? (D) How Do you Design Smart Cars?

Questions 21-25 Transportation is the movement or conveying of persons and goods from one location to another. As human beings, from ancient times to he 21st century, sought to make their transport facilities more efficient, they have always endeavored to move people and property with the least expenditure of time, effort and cost. Improved transportation had helped make possible progress toward better living, the modern systems of manufacturing and commerce, and the complex, interdependent urban economy present in much of the world today. Primitive human beings supplemented their own carrying of goods and possessions by starting to domesticate animals-training them to bear small loads and pull crude sleds. The invention of the wheel, probably in western Asia, was a great step forward in transport. As the wheel was perfected, crude carts and wagons began to appear in the Tigris-Euphrates valley about 3500 BC, and later in Crete, Egypt, and China. Wheeled vehicles could not use the narrow paths and trails used by pack

animals, and early roads were soon being built by the Assyrians and the Persians. The greatest improvements in transportation have appeared in the last two centuries, a period during which the industrial Revolution has vastly changed the economic life of the entire world. Crude railways-horse-drawn wagons with wooden wheels and rails-had been used in English and European mines during the 17th century. Although it first appeared in England. The railroad had its most dramatic growth in the United States. By 1840 more than 4800 km of railroad were already operating in the eastern states, a figure 40 percent greater than the total railroad mileage of Europe. Since World War 1, however, the U.S. railroads have been in a decline, due partly to the rapid development of private automobiles, trucks, buses, pipelines, and airlines. The first new mode of transportation to challenge the railroad was the motor vehicle, which was made possible by the invention, in the 1860s and ’70s, of the internal combustion engine. The automobile found its greatest popularity in the United States, where the first “horseless carriages” appeared in the 1890s. two hundred million motor vehicles had been produced in the nation within 70 years of their first appearance. The automobile thus became in many ways as important to the 20th century as the railroads had been to the 19th. During the same period intercity buses took over a large portion of commercial passenger travel, and trucks began carrying a great deal of the nation’s freight. Although the emphasis on fuel conservation waned in the 1980s, few doubt that the issue will emerge again when oil scarcities loom, as they did in the 1970s. future possibilities include automobiles with far greater fuel efficiency and improved mass-transit systems. Both will occur not only in response to oil-supply disruption, but also as an answer to increasing demands for cleaner air. Improvements in mass transit offer the most promise for the future. Amtrak’s 1993 introduction of the Swedish high-speed “tilting train” should cut travel time between some East Coast cities by almost half, once tracks are entirely electrified.

21. From the first paragraph, it can be inferred that transport exerts a great influence on all the following EXCET_____. (A) economic development (B) living conditions (C) industrial production

(D) political rights 22. The first significant progress in transport in ancient times was attributed to ____. (A) the making of carts and wagons (B) the construction of roads (C) the invention of wheels (D) the building of tracks 23. According to the passage, the railroad first appeared in _____. (A) China (C) Crete (B) England (D) Egypt

24. It can be concluded from the passage that ____. (A) there had been oil crises in the 1970s (B) the motor vehicles played a leading role in the decline of railroads (C) automobiles were more important than railroads (D) environmental protection was major concern in developing transport 25. What dose the passage say about the “tilting train”? (A) It can carry more freight than other vehicles. (B) It requires its tracks to be electrical. (C) Its speed demands cleaner air. (D) Its cost is very low.

Questions 28-30 A visitor from Barcelona arrives at a Madrid government office in mid-afternoon. And is surprised to find only the cleaning lady there. “Don’t they work in the afternoons ?” he asks. “no, ” she replies, “they don’t work in the mornings. In the afternoons they don’t come.” Lazy Madrid, busy Barcelona: it is just one of many stereotypes about Spain’s great rivals. Mostly, the stereotypes are born of Barcelona’s bitterness at its second-class status. Barcelona is the capital of Catalonia, a proudly autonomous region, but Madrid is the capital of Spain. This causes resentment. It makes Barcelona the largest city in Western Europe not to be a national capital. Worse, Barcelona (Catalonia’s capital since the ninth century) regards Madrid (a creation of Philip Ⅱ in the 16th century) as an upstart. And, after being bossed about for so long, who can blame them? Over the years

governments in Madrid did their best to strip Barcelona of political power. They tried to squash the Catalan Language. They even decided what the modern city should look like: in 1860 an order from Madrid overruled Barcelona’s choice of plan for its big expansion, and opted for a grid layout. Barcelona has the liberalism that often characterizes port cities. As Catalans see is. While Madrid bathes in bureaucracy, Barcelona gets on with business. An old-fashioned seriousness in Madrid, isolated high up on Spain’s central plateau, contrasts with the light-heartedness of Barcelona, open to Europe and aggressively avant-garde. Upon to a point, these old caricatures still hold true. No visitor to government buildings in the two cities can fail to be struck by the contrast between them. In Madrid, there are creaky wooden floord, antique furniture and walls covered with paintings by Spanish old masters. In Barcelona, the city of Gaudi and Miro, designer chairs and tables are evidence of the place’s obsession with modernism. Meetings of the Catalan cabinet are held in room with a large, modern painting by Antoni Tapies. And yet, these days, the similarities be two cities are at least striking as the contrasts. Madrid is hardly lazy any more. Visitors find it hard to keep up with the pace of the place. Nor is it old-fashioned. Indeed, it has become almost outrageously modern. To judge by the local cuisine, you would think the place was a port: although far from the sea, seafood is a miraculous Madrid speciality. As banks and business have been drawn to Madrid and industrial centre as an administrative one. Barcelona, meanwhile, in Spain’s traditional industrial heartland, has been experiencing a rise in bureaucracy. The rivalry between Madrid and Barcelona is bound to remain fierce, not least on the soccer field, where Real Madrid and Barcelona compete for Spanish supremacy. Barcelona will continue to press for yet more power to be devolved to it from Madrid: it is calling for the Senate, Spain’s upper house of parliament, to be moved to the Catalan capital. But with a lot of local autonomy restored, and with the success of the 1992 Olympics behind it, the chip on Barcelona’s shoulder is becoming ever harder to detect.

26. Which of the following best illustrates the stereotypes about Madrid and Barcelona?

(A) Madrid government officials never come to the office in the afternoon. (B) Barcelona is an efficient and less bureaucratic place for business dealings. (C) People in Barcelona are very resentful at Madrid’s being the capital city. (D) Barcelona is the largest city in Western Europe but it failed to claim its right status. 27. Historically, Barcelona has regarded Madrid as ______. (A) less bureaucratic (C) a newcomer (B)inferior (D) less funny

28. How did governments in Madrid deliberately strip Barcelona of political power? (A) They strongly opposed a grid layout in Barcelona which confines the city in its original space. (B) They gave the priority to the Catalan language rather than Spanish. (C) They turned down Barcelona’s proposal for its expansion. (D) They ridiculed Barcelona’s second-class status. 29. Which of the following is the most likely caricature of Spain’s capital city? (A) Government houses have dilapidated wooden floor, antique furniture and old paintings. (B) The polished wooden floors and designer chairs and tables are the symbols of government houses. (C) Meetings of the Cabinet are held in room with a large, modern painting by Antoni Tapies. (D) It has all the hustle and bustle because of its political superiority. 30. Nowadays people in Barcelona feel more ______ Madrid as they used to. (A) afraid of (C) obsessed with (B) hateful of (D) competitive with

ECTION 3: TRANSLATION TEST (1)
(30minutes)

Directions: Translate the following passage into Chinese and write your version in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET.

Americans have come to expect a lot of their presidents, more perhaps than any

can deliver. We say that the president runs the country, but in practice, presidents have trouble running large parts of the government. We hold the president responsible for the economy, even though he has few economic levers at his command. We expect the commander in chief to lead us to victory in war, and then we complain when we think he is micromanaging the military. And we tend to think of the president as the personification of the nation he leads. Few other democracies combine the position of head of government and head of state. We do, and some of the bitterness of our politics spring from the conviction of many Americans that this of that president does not really represent their country. Yet as we look back at our presidents, we see them less as partisan politicians than as national leaders, who in different ways have helped develop the strengths and virtues of our nation.

SECTION 4: TRANSLATION TEST (2)
(30 minutes)

Directions: Translate the following passage into English and write your version in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. 有人把香港说成是“文化沙漠” 。实际上,香港有着其独特的文化氛围。在 电影制作方面,香港名列世界前茅,其流行歌曲在全球华人中有着广泛的影响, 而且还有 8 所知名的大学。 这座城市特殊的历史和地理因素造就了一种多样化的文化。 每年一度由政府 主办的艺术嘉年华为当地艺术家展示其独创性提供了一个广阔的平台, 并鼓励更 多人参与文化艺术创作,为中国的文华繁荣作出了许多创新和突破。

答案

上海市英语中级口译资格证书 第一阶段考试听力部分 Part A: Spot dictation 1) hardened criminals 2) possible solution 3) committed an offenc e 4) plead guilty 5) the juvenile court’s permission 6) of the same ag e 7) determine a sentence 8) clear 9) performing 10) agree to accep t 11) oversee the proceeding 12) regular court system 13) 426 commu nities 14) a chance to participate 15) educate and motivate 16) better c ommunication 17) alternative 18) recognize 19) a respect for themsel ves 20) legal system Part B: Listening Comprehension 1-5 CBDCA 6-10 ACBAC

11-15 CDACA 16-20 DDBDA 21-25 CBBBA 26-30 CDCAD Part C 1. Sentence Traslation 1) People are now ordering and purchasing virtually everything over the I nternet. Books, compact disks even stocks are available from websites tha t seem to spring up almost daily. 现在人们几乎在网上订购和购买所有的东西。 在网上几乎每天都会出 现新的网页,书本,碟片,甚至是股票都能在网上买到。

2) It was supposed to be a short briefing, but it lasted 3 hours. We were al l exhausted when we stepped out of the conference room, all except chai r person. 原本只是一个简短的任务布置会却开了 3 个小时。除了会议主席以 外,我们所有的人走出会议室时都已经累垮了。 3) I have thought to give our nation a new kind of government, smaller, m ore modern and more effective, always putting people first, always focusi ng on the future. 我想过在我们的祖国建立一个新的政府,一个更小型的,更先进,更 有效的政府,而且总是把人民放在首位,总是放眼未来。 4)Thanks to the continuing boom and technology shares on the stock ma rket, this year, the richest have added 5 billion more to their wealth. 由于股票市场持续走高和科技股的出现,和去年相比,今年的首富们 多赚了 50 亿。 5) According to a recent survey, about 65% of British couples get marrie d in a church, most people who die get a Christian funeral, but less than 2 0% go regularly to church.

根据最近的一项调查统计, 在英国, 65%的新人在教堂里举行婚礼, 有 大多数人死后的葬礼是基督教式的, 但平时坚持去教堂的人 20%都不 到。 2. Passage Translation 1) If you are born into an American family ranking in the top 10 of incom e, chances are 1 in 3 that you’ll stay there. If you’re born into a family o f bottom 1/10, however, chances are more rare that you’ll ever reach the t op. So much for equality of opportunity, in America as elsewhere in th e world, the rich always get richer, and the poor can hardly get by. The wi dening gap between the rich and the poor is everyone’s problem and ever yone’s responsibility. 如果你出生在美国收入排名前十的家庭里, 你的收入也排名在美国前 十的概率是三分之一。 如果你出生所在的家庭的收入属于最低的十分 之一,那么,你成为首富的可能微乎其微。机会是平等的,这句话虽 然没错,但不管是在美国还是在别的国家,富人越来越富,穷人却难 以度日。富人和穷人之间的差距越拉越大,这是关系每个人的问题, 而减小这个差距也是每个人的责任。 2) The credit card industry is only about 50 years’ old. Some credit card s have offered real convenience. Those accepting credit cards include hos pitals for open-heart surgery and the federal government for income taxe s. Instead of saving for a washing machine or computer, some people mer

ely charge them. They do not realize that it may cost them more to charg e than to pay cash. Because of the easy excess to credit, many American s today are over their heads in debt. 信用卡业务已经发展了 50 个年头了。有的信用卡的确为人们提供了 方便。医院的心脏手术费可以用信用卡支付,政府的个人所得税也可 以用信用卡缴纳。如果要买洗衣机或电脑,有的人就不再存钱去买, 而是使用贷款的方式购买。 他们没有意识到贷款比用现金购买实际支 付了更多的钱。只因为信用卡到处都能用,现在许多美国人到处都欠 债。 阅读答案: 1-5. BBCDA 6-10. CDBCD 11-15.CDCBA 16-20.DDBAC 21-25.DCBAB 26-30.BBCAD

英翻中 美国人对总统的期望值越来越高, 高于他们的能力所及。我们认为, 总统治理着国家,但是实际上,总统在处理大部分政府事务时存在着 很多困难。我们也认为,总统应对国家的经济发展负责。即使他们掌 控的经济调节杠杆很有限。 我们希望,总司令能在战争中带领我们 走向胜利。但是,当我们认为他们失去对军事的大局控制的时候,有 牢骚满腹。我们往往认为,总统是他领导的国家的化身。在别的民主 国家的政治体制中,很少有人同时兼任政府首领和国家首领。但是我

们却是这样。我们政治中让人心痛的地方来自于美国人的信念。他们 认为,无论哪个总统都不能真正代表他们的国家。但是当我们回顾历 届总统的时候,我们并不把他们看成某个党派的政治家,而是看作整 个国家的首领。他们以自己不同的方式来发展我们的实力和美德。

汉译英: Some people disparage/ describe Hong Kong as a “cultural desert”. Hon g Kong has actually exhibited a unique cultural landscape embedded wit h Hong Kong characteristics/ a unique culture with Hong Kong characteri stics. Hong Kong’s film production stays ahead/ ranks among the best in t he world, and its pop songs have widely influenced Chinese around the w orld. Besides, it has (established) 8 famous universities. The city’s special historical and geographical traits have contributed t o a diverse culture. The annual Art Carnival sponsored by the (SAR) gov ernment provides a wide/ broad platform for local artists to showcase thei r originality and encourages more people to be involved in cultural and ar tistic endeavors/ activities. (The literary and artistic circles of) Hong Kon g have made a lot of innovations and breakthroughs for the prosperity/ en richment of Chinese culture.

2005.09上海市英语中级口译资格证书第一阶段考试
SECTION 1: LISTENING TEST(45 minutes) Part A: Spot Dictation Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear a passage and read the same passage with blanks in it. Fill in each of the blanks with the word or words you have heard on the tape. Write your answer in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. Remember you will hear the passage ONLY ONCE. If you find you spend more than you make, there are only two things to do: decrease your spending or _______________(1). It’s often easiest to decrease expenditures, because your expenses tend to be more _______________(2). There are as many ways to _______________(3) as there are people looking to save it. For example, you may pool your resources with friends, or _______________(4) only during sales, or even live more simply. But _______________(5) that saving money should not necessarily be an end in itself. Don’t _______________(6) of ways to save a dime, and don’t get upset about situations where _______________(7) to spend money. The goal is to bring your budget into balance, not to become a tightwad who keeps _______________(8) of every penny and feels that spending money is a _______________(9). It is important to remember that budgets may be _______________(10) not only by decreasing expenditures, but also by increasing income. _______________(11) to increase income is to get a

_______________(12) if you don’t already have one. Many students work during college. Although working adds to the

_______________(13) you will face, it does not mean that your grades will necessarily suffer. In fact, many students who work _______________(14) than those who don’t work, because those with jobs need to be _______________(15). Considering part-time work is often a better _______________(16) for dealing with budget shortfalls, than taking out a loan. Because student loans are _______________(17), it’s easy to use them as a crutch. Loans can be of help _______________(18) or if you couldn’t afford to attend a college without them. If you do _______________(19), remind yourself: one day soon you’ll have to _______________(20), with interest.

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Part B: Listening Comprehension 1. Statements Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short statements. These statements will be spoken ONLY ONCE, and you will not find them written on the paper; so you must listen carefully. When you hear a statement, read the answer choices and decide which one is closest in meaning to the statement you have heard. Then write the letter of the answer you have chosen in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. 1. (A) I know many business people at the Beachside Hotel. (B) The Beachside is the only favorite hotel for many business people. (C) Many business people like to hold conferences in the Beachside Hotel. (D) Many business people provide the best conference facilities for the Beachside. 2. (A) Only 25 to 30 college graduates will be short-listed for the interview. (B) The applicants will be asked to do a qualification test. (C) No one but 25 to 30-year-old college graduates can apply for the job. (D) The department needs 25 to 30 college graduates to finish the evaluation. 3. (A) Seldom are new scientific theories rejected quickly. (B) New scientific theories are often slow to be accepted. (C) Scientists rarely publish their theories immediately. (D) Quick benefits are expected from this new scientific theory. 4. (A) We are content with our cooperation. (B) We plan to strengthen our cooperation. (C) The project was not approved by the two sides. (D) The project was not completed on time. 5. (A) All the committee members except the chairman were against the proposal. (B) Nobody wanted to put forward a proposal to open a second branch downtown. (C) The chairman was the only one who was against the new proposal. (D) After negotiations, the committee decided to open a new branch downtown. 6. (A) We offer a five to ten percent discount unless you require immediate delivery. (B) We promise to refund the money if we cannot send our products in time. (C) If you order our products right now, we will give you certain commission in cash.

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(D) Buying our products will save not only your money, but also your time. 7. (A) It was predicted that I would be the Guest of Honour at the Show. (B) I had to wait for 20 years before I was invited to the Show. (C) I didn’t expect that I would be the Guest of Honour at the Show. (D) I suspected that I would be given a leading role in the movie. 8. (A) It wouldn't be wise to reopen the discussion on the project today. (B) I think we should reconsider our investment in the project. (C) Don't you think we could be wise by increasing our investment? (D) Have you ever seen such a wonderful view of the woods? 9. (A) We will beat our rival in the football league match on the playground. (B) We will have to consult the experts to learn our rival’s financial position. (C) Our special knowledge and diligence will make up for our lack of funds. (D) Our staff members are more experienced and diligent in raising funds. 10. (A) People using the Internet will soon be almost doubled. (B) Population is exploding because of the Internet. (C) Ten years ago, only rich people can afford to use the Internet. (D) The Internet population will increase two-fold in ten years. 2. Talks and Conversations Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks and conversations. After each of these, you will hear a few questions. Listen carefully because you will hear the talk or conversation and questions ONLY ONCE. When you hear a question, read the four answer choices and choose the best answer to that question. Then write the letter of the answer you have chosen in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. Questions 11--14 11. (A) Make a phone call. (B) Ask for her advice. (C) Return some books. (D) Borrow her notes. 12. (A) An essay on art. (B) A book review. (C) A survey on IT industry. (D) A science project. 13. (A) Lend him some books. (B) Give him more advice. (C) Return the books by Wednesday.

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(D) Let him use her notes. 14. (A) On Friday. (B) The next day. (C) In the evening. (D) A few hours later. Questions 15--18 15. (A) Real words spoken by new-borns. (B) Talk used with children by immature people. (C) Lucky names for animals such as cows and dogs. (D) Childish talk used with young children. 16. (A) It assists children to develop language skills more quickly. (B) It earns more admiration from other parents. (C) It makes children to become more obedient and humble. (D) It helps children better understand and communicate with adults. 17. (A) By speaking like a baby. (B) By using real names. (C) By being consistent. (D) By talking in a patronizing way. 18. (A) Because they are the source of admiration from their peers. (B) Because they can prepare children for the complexity in later life. (C) Because they cost the parents less than the desserts and toys. (D) Because they can help the children become more consistent in future. Questions 19--22 19. (A) Restaurant owner and customer. (B) Teacher and student. (C) Husband and wife. (D) Doctor and patient. 20. (A) Sometimes nothing at all. (B) A sandwich and a cup of coffee. (C) Some vitamin pills. (D) Some mineral water. 21. (A) He’s tired of his promotion and new responsibilities. (B) He finds it difficult to cope with so many urgent projects.

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(C) He’s quite satisfied with the recent progress in his work. (D) He thinks it to be a headache that he has to work late every night. 22. (A) Eating more food. (B) Getting some exercise. (C) Taking some medicine. (D) Quitting his job. Questions 23--26 23. (A) Writing. (B) Reading. (C) Speaking. (D) Listening. 24. (A) Because we often take our ability to listening for granted. (B) Because we are surrounded by all sorts of noises. (C) Because we do not spend much time listening. (D) Because we do not attach great importance to listening. 25. (A) 30 percent. (B) 45 percent. (C) 50 percent. (D) 75 percent. 26. (A) The ship crew ignored repeated warnings. (B) The passengers did not listen to the captain. (C) The crew refused to obey the captain’s orders. (D) The captain did not sleep well the night before the accident. Questions 27--30 27. (A) Because he could avoid being killed by the H-bomb. (B) Because he had a new world to fight for. (C) Because he was able to enjoy a pollution-free life. (D) Because he succeeded in setting up his own business. 28. (A) Moving from place to place. (B) Enjoying life in the country. (C) Making a little progress each day. (D) Working and learning. 29. (A) Pollution and population explosion. (B) Universal love and understanding between people. (C) Advice and suggestions for their children.

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(D) Responsibilities for one another regardless of race, colour or nationality. 30. (A) Because they don’t experience the same kind of problems. (B) Because they cannot adapt themselves to the fast progress. (C) Because they are too old to fight for a new world. (D) Because they feel the generation gap is too great to span over. Part C: Listening and Translation 1. Sentence Translation Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear 5 sentences in English. You will hear the sentences ONLY ONCE. After you have heard each sentence, translate it into Chinese and write your version in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) 2. Passage Translation Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear 2 passages in English. You will hear the passages ONLY ONCE. After you have heard each passage, translate it into Chinese and write your version in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. You may take notes while you are listening. (1) (2)

SECTION 2: STUDY SKILLS(45 minutes) Directions: In this section, you will read several passages. Each passage is followed by several questions based on its content. You are to choose ONE best answer, (A), (B), (C) or (D), to each question. Answer all the questions following each passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage and write the letter of the answer you have chosen in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. Questions 1--5 One day, drought may be a thing of the past, at least in any country not too far from

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the sea. Vast areas of desert throughout the world may for the first time come to life and provide millions of hectares of cultivated land where now nothing grows. By the end of this century this may not be mere speculation. Scientists are already looking into the possibility of using some of the available ice in the Arctic and Antarctic. In these regions there are vast ice-caps formed by snow that has fallen over the past 50,000 years. Layer upon layer of deep snow means that, when melted, the snow water would be pure, not salty as sea-ice would be. There is so much potential pure water here that it would need only a fraction to turn much of the desert or poorly irrigated parts of the world into rich farmland. And what useful packages would come in! It should be possible to hack off a bit of ice and transport it! Alternatively perhaps a passing iceberg could be captured. They are always breaking away from the main caps and floating around, pushed by currents, until they eventually melt and are wasted. Many icebergs are, of course, much too small to be towed any distance, and would melt before they reached a country that needed them anywhere. It would be necessary to harness one that was manageable and that was big enough to provide a good supply when it reached us. Engineers think that an iceberg up to 11 kilometres long and 2 kilometres wide could be transported if the tug pulling it was as big as a supertanker! Even then they would cover only 32 kilometres every day. However, once the iceberg was at its destination, say at one end of Hong Kong harbour, more than 7,000 million cubic metres of water could be taken from it! That would probably be more than enough for Hong Kong even in the hottest summer! But no doubt a use could be found for it. Apparently, scientists say, there would not be too much wastage in such a journey. The larger the iceberg, the slower it melts, even if it is towed through the tropics. This is because when the sun has a bigger area to warm up, less heat actually gets into the iceberg. The vast frozen center would be unaffected. Even with the giant tug that would have to be available to tow an iceberg seven miles long, the voyage would take many months from the Antarctic to Hong Kong, for example, but as stronger engines are built and more is known about sea currents, the journey could get shorter and shorter and thus the wastage less and less. Airline pilots have learnt to use jet streams ten miles above the earth to increase speed and save fuel so, surely, a boat towing an iceberg could make use of fast-flowing currents and avoid

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warmer water. 1. The main idea of the first paragraph is that _____. (A) much of desert has been changed into rich farmland already (B) the problem of drought could easily be solved all over the world (C) ice from the polar area may be used to solve the problem of drought (D) it is possible to solve the problem of drought in many countries 2. We learn form the passage that icebergs _____. (A) took shape as early as 50,000 years ago (B) are eventually wasted while floating around (C) melt more slowly in tropics than in any other areas (D) are often too big to be of any value 3. The difficulty of using ice to solve the drought problem lies in all of the following EXCEPT _____. (A) the proper equipment for transportation (B) the time taken on the journey (C) the storage of the fresh water (D) the proper size of icebergs 4. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true? (A) The time for towing icebergs may be made shorter. (B) It is possible to use ships to tow icebergs from the polar areas. (C) Airline pilots may make use of jet streams to help towing an iceberg. (D) Not too much of the iceberg would melt while being towed through the oceans. 5. The author’s attitude towards the solution to the problem of drought is _____. (A) doubtful (B) positive (C) discouraging (D) critical Questions 6--10 Most sore throats are caused by an infection which treatment with antibiotics cannot cure. But with simple remedies the patient normally gets better in 4 or 5 days. Sore throats are common. Most of the time the soreness is worse in the morning and improves

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as the day progresses. Like colds, the vast majority of sore throats are caused by viral infections. This means most sore throats will NOT respond to antibiotics. Many people have a mild sore throat at the beginning of every cold. When the nose or sinuses become infected, drainage can run down the back of the throat and irritate it, especially at night. Or, the throat itself can be infected. With a sore throat, sometimes the tonsils or surrounding parts of the throat are inflamed. Either way, removing the tonsils to try to prevent future sore throats is not recommended for most children. Tonsillitis, however, usually starts with a sore throat which causes pain on swallowing. With children—and some adults—there may be a fever and the patient is obviously not feeling well. It may be possible to see white spots on the back of the throat. The neck may also swell, both of which are the normal response to infection. Sometimes a sore throat may occur with the common cold, and with influenza there may be dryness of the throat, pain on coughing and loss of voice. TREATMENT: Aspirin: To help relieve the pain on swallowing and (if there is one) the fever. Use aspirin tablets dissolved in water so that the patient can gargle before swallowing. Repeat the treatment every 4 hours. Drink: Encourage the patient to drink plenty. Food: Food should not be forced on a patient who does not want to eat. Steam: If there is pain in the throat on coughing, breathing in steam may help. CHILDREN: Young children, who may not be able to gargle, should be given aspirin dissolved in water every 4 hours in the right dose for their age. At one year: A single junior aspirin. At five years: Half an adult aspirin. At eight years: One whole adult aspirin. WHEN TO SEE THE DOCTOR: If the sore throat it still getting worse after 2 days. If the patient complains of earache.

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It the patient’s fever increases. If the patient or parent is very worried. 6. According to the passage, it would appear that most sore throats _____. (A) require an immediate visit to a doctor (B) respond quickly to treatment with an antibiotic (C) rarely turn out to be serious illnesses (D) result in tonsillitis even when treated 7. One of the signs of tonsillitis can often be _____. (A) difficulty in swallowing food and liquid (B) pain in the chest when the patient coughs (C) white spots appearing on the neck (D) earache during the first four or five days 8. In order to treat a sore throat one should _____. (A) prevent the patient from eating too much (B) give the patient up to 4 aspirin tablets every hour (C) make sure the patient takes in plenty of liquid (D) make the patient gargle with soft drink 9. You should call the doctor in if _____. (A) the infection spreads to another member of the family (B) swelling occurs in the region of the ears (C) the patient’s voice is lost after two days (D) the patient’s condition continues to worsen 10. As used in the passage, the word “gargle” means _____. (A) to wash one’s mouth and throat with a liquid in motion by breathing through it (B) to eat something with a continuous and often audible action of one’s jaws (C) to bite and work in the mouth with one’s teeth, especially to make it easier to swallow something (D) to cause or allow something, especially food or drink, to pass down one’s sore throat Questions 11--15 I watched as Dr Ian Stead, the archaeologist in charge of the excavation, began carefully removing the peat with a clay modelling tool. X-rays taken through the box

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while it was at the hospital revealed ribs, backbone, arm bones and a skull (apparently with fractures). However, the bones showed up only faintly because acid in the peat had removed minerals from them. Using the X-rays, Stead started on what he thought might be a leg. By his side was Professor Frank Oldfield, of Liverpool University, an expert on peat who could identify vegetation from stems only a fraction of an inch long. “Similar bodies found in bogs in Denmark show signs of a violent death,” Stead said. “It is essential for us to be able to distinguish between the plant fibres in peat and clothing or a piece of rope which might have been used to hang him.” As Stead continued his gentle probing, a brown leathery limb began to materialize amidst the peat; but not until most of it was exposed could he and Robert Connolly, a physical anthropologist at Liverpool University, decide that it was an arm. Beside it was a small piece of animal fur—perhaps the remains of clothing. Following the forearm down into the peat, Stead found a brown shiny object and then, close by, two more. Seen under a magnifying glass, he suddenly realised they were fingernails—“beautifully manicured and without a scratch on them,” he said. “Most people at this time in the Iron Age were farmers; but with fingernails like that, this person can’t have been. He might have been a priest or an aristocrat.” Especially delicate work was required to reveal the head. On the third day, a curly sideburn appeared and, shortly afterwards, a moustache. At first it seemed that the man had been balding but gradually he was seen to have close-cropped hair, about an inch or two long. “This information about his hairstyle is unique. We have no other information about what Britons looked like before the Roman invasion except for three small plaques showing Celts with drooping moustaches and shaven chins.” The crucial clue showing how the man died had already been revealed, close to his neck, but it looked just like another innocent heather root. It was not recognised until two days later, when Margaret McCord, a senior conservation officer, found the sameroot at the back of his neck and, cleaning it carefully, saw its twisted texture. “He’s been garrotted.” She declared. The ‘root’ was a length of twisted sinew, the thickness of strong string. A slip knot at the back shows how it was tightened round the neck.

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“A large discoloration on the left shoulder suggests a bruise and possibly a violent struggle,” Stead said. 11. The X-rays that were taken showed Stead and Oldfield _____. (A) a vague picture of the bones (B) exactly what they were looking for (C) which deposits were clay and which peat (D) exactly how the man had died 12. The researchers suspected the man had met a violent death because _____. (A) he was still wearing clothes (B) similar bodies had been found elsewhere (C) there were traces of a hanging rope in the peat (D) he hadn’t been buried in a coffin 13. It was the forearm they uncovered which _____. (A) required the most delicate work (B) indicated the age of the man (C) told them something about the man’s clothes (D) led them to discover the fingernails 14. Why did the researchers think the man was possibly a priest? (A) He had closely-cropped hair. (B) His coat was fur-lined (C) He had a drooping moustache and shaven chin. (D) His fingernails were well looked after. 15. It was established that the man they dug out of the peat had been _____. (A) beheaded (B) strangled (C) drowned (D) stabbed in the neck Questions 16--20 Does using a word processor affect a writer’s style? The medium usually does do something to the message after all, even if Marshall McLuhan’s claim that the medium simply is the message has been heard and largely forgotten now. The question matters.

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Ray Hammond, in his excellent guide The Writer and the Word Processor (Coronet ?2.95 pp224), predicts that over half of the professional writers in Britain and the USA will be using word processors by the end of 1995. The best-known recruit is Len Deighton, from as long ago as 1968, though most users have only started since the micro-computer boom began in 1980. Ironically word processing is in some ways psychologically more like writing in rough than typing, since it restores fluidity and provisionality to the text. The typist’s dread of having to get out the Tippex, the scissors and paste, or of redoing the whole thing if he has any substantial second thoughts, can make him consistently choose the safer option in his sentences, or let something stand which he knows to be unsatisfactory or incomplete, out of weariness. In word processing the text is loosened up whilst still retaining the advantage of looking formally finished. This has, I think, two apparently contradictory effects. The initial writing can become excessively sloppy and careless, in the expectation that it will be corrected later. That crucial first inspiration is never easy to recapture though, and therefore, on the other hand, the writing can become over-deliberated, lacking in flow and spontaneity, since revision becomes a larger part of composition. However these are faults easier to detect in others than in oneself. For most writers, word processing quite rapidly comes to feel like the ideal method (and can always be a second step after drafting on paper if you prefer). Most of the writers interviewed by Hammond say it has improved their style (“immensely”, says Deighton). Seeing your own words on a screen helps you to feel cool and detached about them. Thus it is not just by freeing you from the labour of mechanical re-typing that a word processor can help you to write. One author (Terence Feely) claims it has increased his output by 400%. Possibly the feeling of having a reactive machine, which appears to do things, rather than just have things done with it, accounts for this—your slave works hard and so do you. Are there no drawbacks? It costs a lot and takes time to learn—“expect to lose weeks of work”, says Hammond, though days might be nearer the mark. Notoriously it is possible to lose work altogether on a word processor, and this happens to everybody at

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least once. The awareness that what you have written no longer exists at all anywhere, is unbelievably enraging and baffling.

16. According to the first paragraph of the passage, what is the obvious change for professional writers in Britain and the USA? (A) The style they are employing. (B) The medium they are using. (C) The way they are being recruited. (D) The paper they are writing on. 17. Typing in the conventional manner, a writer may _____. (A) choose to white more carefully (B) make more mistakes (C) become overcritical of his or her work (D) have a lot of second thoughts 18. One effect of using a word processor may be that the ongoing revision of a text _____. (A) is done with too little attention (B) produces a sloppy effect (C) is lacking in flow and spontaneity (D) does not encourage one to pick up mistakes 19. It is claimed here that word processors create _____. (A) a sense of power in the writer’s mind (B) a reluctance in the author to express himself or herself (C) an illusion as if you were a servant of the machine (D) a feeling of distance between a writer and his or her work 20. As far as learning to use a word processor is concerned, the author of the passage mentions a number of drawbacks EXCEPT that _____. (A) it takes time (B) it is costly (C) the user may rely too much on the machine (D) the user may lose weeks of work

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Questions 21--25 In almost all cases the soft parts of fossils are gone for ever but they were fitted around or within the hard parts. Many of them also were attached to the hard parts and usually such attachments are visible as depressed or elevated areas, ridges, or grooves, smooth or rough patches on the hard parts. The muscles most important for the activities of the animal and most evident in the appearance of the living animal are those attached to the hard parts and possible to reconstruct from their attachments. Much can be learned about a vanished brain from the inside of the skull in which it was lodged. Restoration of the external appearance of an extinct animal has little or no scientific value. It does not even help in inferring what the activities of the living animal were, how fast it could run, what its food was, or such other conclusions as are important for the history of life. However, what most people want to know about extinct animals is what they looked like when they were alive. Scientists also would like to know. Things like fossil shells present no great problem as a rule, because the hard parts are external when the animal is alive and the outer appearance is actually preserved in the fossils. Animals in which the skeleton is internal present great problems of restoration, and honest restorers admit that they often have to use considerable guessing. The general shape and contours of the body are fixed by the skeleton and by muscles attached to the skeleton, but surface features, which may give the animal its really characteristic look, are seldom restorable with any real probability of accuracy. The present often helps to interpret the past. An extinct animal presumably looked more or less like its living relatives, if it has any. This, however, may be quite equivocal. For example, extinct members of the horse family are usually restored to look somewhat like the most familiar living horses—domestic horses and their closest wild relatives. It is, however, possible and even probable that many extinct horses were striped like zebras. Others probably had patterns no longer present in any living members of the family. If lions and tigers were extinct they would be restored to look exactly alike. No living elephants have much hair and mammoths, which are extinct elephants, would doubtless be restored as hairless if we did not happen to know that they had thick, woolly coats. We know this only because mammoths are so recently extinct that prehistoric men drew pictures of them and that the hide and hair have actually been found in a few specimens. For older extinct animals we

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have no such clues. 21. According to the passage, the soft part of fossilized animals _____. (A) can always be accurately identified (B) have usually left some traces (C) can usually be reconstructed (D) have always vanished without any trace 22. The muscles of a fossilized animal can sometimes be reconstructed because _____. (A) they were preserved with the rest of the animal (B) they were lodged inside the animal’s skull (C) they were hardened parts of the animal’s body (D) they were attached to the animal’s skeleton 23. The reconstruction of a fossilized animal’s external appearance is considered necessary in order to _____. (A) satisfy popular curiosity (B) answer scientific questions (C) establish its activities (D) determine its eating habits 24. The word “equivocal” (para. 3) means _____. (A) equally important (B) definable (C) equally doubtful (D) deliberate 25. The third paragraph of the passage deals with the difficulties of restoring the following fossilized animals EXCEPT _____. (A) those which had complex internal structures (B) those which had no external hard parts (C) those which had fur-covered bodies (D) those which had no living relatives Questions 26--30
There is a basic hypothesis that the majority of serious motoring offences are derived from

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accidents, and there is nothing in the offender’s personality or background that predisposes him to break the law. If an accident is a chance event that happens so quickly and suddenly that it is beyond anyone’s control to prevent it, then it is clear that this hypothesis is disproved. For only about 14 per cent of the 653 offences considered in a recent survey could possibly be called inadvertent accidents in this sense, and even this estimate is stretching credulity to its limits. In the great majority of cases the offences were largely of the offenders’ own making. In 11 per cent of the 653 cases and 21 per cent of 43 offenders who were interviewed there was evidence of selfish, and even ruthless, self-interest, but it was not possible to infer personality disturbance in more than 25 per cent of the 653 and 39 per cent of the 43 offenders. Though the inferences with regard to personality traits may be an overestimate in the interpretation of qualitative data, they could equally be an underestimate, since so very little was ever recorded about the offenders themselves. The lack of data is a consequence of the almost total lack of interest in motoring offenders as persons.It must be assumed, therefore, in the absence of evidence to the contrary that the majority of serious motoring offenders considered in the survey were normal people, who succumbed to temptation when circumstances were favourable and it was expedient to take a chance, so perhaps there is something in the normal personality that predisposes a driver to break the law. Whatever it is, its presence is much more evident in males than in females, since the analysis of the national statistics shows a predominance of males over females of between 18:1 and 22:1. The real significance of these figures is hard to assess, because the relative proportions of each sex at risk are unknown. One research worker produced a ratio of six males to one female from his sample of insurance policy holders, but this is almost certainly an underestimate since many females—probably more than males—are likely to be driving on someone else’s policy. A ration of three to one is probably nearer to the real state of affairs. Females reached noticeable proportions only among the hit-and-run drivers, and there seems to be some justification for calling this the ‘feminine’ offence. The difference between the sexes in their relative propensity to break the law on the roads is important, because it shows that motoring offenders have a characteristic in common with offenders in other fields of criminal activity, where males predominate to a marked degree. One motor insurance underwriter recently announced his intention to offer discounts on premiums where the policy holder or the ‘named driver’ was a woman.

The basic hypothesis is further disproved by the very high incidence, among the offences studied, of failing to insure against third-party risks. Yet accidents brought to light only a very small percentage of this kind of crime. Moreover, it could not possibly be said that this, the most common of the serious offences, was brought about by providence. On the contrary, it can be regarded as a typical form of economic crime, which, although sometimes committed through inadvertence, is more usually quite deliberate and calculated.

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26. The word “hypothesis” (line 1) means _____. (A) a wrong belief (B) an unproved theory (C) a demonstrable idea (D) a fundamental law 27. Inadequate statistical information about the personalities of motoring offenders is largely the result of _____. (A) the difficulty of interpreting the self-evident facts (B) the inaccessibility of the police records (C) scanty recorded evidence of the offenders themselves (D) insufficient research into the recorded qualitative data 28. Women can sometimes get more favourable motoring insurance terms than men because statistically _____. (A) they are much better at controlling a car (B) they are smaller and more important (C) they are less likely to commit grave offences (D) they are more unwilling to take out policies themselves 29. It can be inferred from the passage that _____. (A) women are unwilling to drive on someone else’s policy (B) women are more likely to be the hit-and-run drivers (C) men are regarded as criminals in road accidents (D) men are more likely to be insurance underwriters 30. A “third party” (para. 3) is essentially _____. (A) any insured woman driver (B) the driver of an insured car (C) a normal policy-holder (D) any other road-user SECTION 3: TRANSLATION TEST (1)(30 minutes) Directions: Translate the following passage into Chinese and write your version in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. There is a growing number of economists who believe today’s brutally tough labor

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market is not a temporary American oddity. Falling wages, reduced benefits and rising job insecurity seem to be increasingly entrenched features of the job scene across most of Western Europe, the United States and other parts of the developed world. The number of insecure freelance positions is rising (as are working hours) while stable jobs with good benefits are being cut. Laid-off workers are much less likely to be rehired by their old companies and have to find new jobs or turn to self-employment. Those who still have jobs are working longer hours with little prospect of meaningful raises. The new labor market is shaped by growing global competition, spurred by the rise of cheap manufacturers in China, India and Eastern Europe, and the price-chopping effect of both the Internet and giant retailers led by Wal-Mart. These forces compel Western companies to exercise a growing restraint on prices and labor cost. One thing globalization clearly does is to exert a leveling effect on wages.

SECTION 4: TRANSLATION TEST (2)(30 minutes) Directions: Translate the following passage into English and write your version in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. 中国有句古话:“相知无远近,万里尚为邻”。中国与亚洲各国山水相连, 共同铸就了灿烂的亚洲文明;古老而美丽的“丝绸之路”,谱写了中欧千年往来 的美好篇章。中国与亚欧各国的互利合作正在步入一个全新的阶段。中国已成为 亚欧和世界经济发展中的积极力量,我们将坚定走和平发展的道路,致力于同亚 欧各国发展富有活力和长期稳定的全面合作关系,与亚欧各国相互支持,携手前 进,共创美好的未来。

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2006 年 9 月中级口译真题+参考答案 英语中级口译资格证书第一阶段考试 SECTION 1: LISTENING TEST Part A: Spot Dictation Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear a passage and read the same passage with blanks in it. Fill in each of the blanks with the word or words you have heard on the tape. Write your answer in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. Remember you will hear the passage ONLY ONCE. British people are far more sophisticated about beverages than they were 50 years ago. Witness the Starbucks revolution and you’ll know where ___________ (1) goes. However, spurred on by recent studies suggesting that it can cut the risk of ___________ (2) and retard the aging process, tea is enjoying a ___________ (3). Although tea is available in more places than ever, it remains to be _____________ (4) of a typical British family. If you are invited to an English home, _____________ (5) in the morning you get a cup of tea. It is either brought in by a heartily _____________ (6) or an almost malevolently silent maid. When you are _____________ (7) in your sweetest morning sleep you must not say: ‘Go away, you _____________ (8).’ On the contrary, you have to declare with your best five o’clock smile: ‘Thank you very much. I _____________ (9) a cup of tea, especially in the morning.’ If they leave you alone with the liquid you may pour it _____________ (10)! Then you have ___________ (11); then you have tea at 11 o’clock in the morning; _____________ (12); then you have tea for tea; then after supper; and again at eleven o’clock _____________ (13). You must not refuse any additional cups of tea under the _____________ (14): if it is hot; if it is cold; if you are _____________ (15); if you are nervous; if you are watching TV; _____________ (16); if you have just returned home; if you feel like it; if you do not feel like it; if you have had no tea ______________ (17); if you have just had a cup. You definitely must not ______________ (18). I sleep at five o’clock in the morning; I have coffee for breakfast; I drink innumerable _____________ (19) during the day; I have the _____________ (20) even at tea-time! Part B: Listening Comprehension 1. Statements Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short statements. These statements will be spoken ONLY ONCE, and you will not find them written on the paper; so you must listen carefully. When you hear a statement, read the answer choices and decide which one is closest in meaning to the statement you have heard. Then write the letter of the answer you have chosen in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. 1. (A) The program on Channel Eight reminds me of TV commercials. (B) The product advertised in the TV commercial cannot help cure my illness. (C) I don’t watch TV that much, because of the omnipresent advertisements. (D) I have to sit on the sofa, because I am too sick to stand in front of the television. 2. (A) The plane arrived at 7:30.

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(B) The plane arrived at 8:00. (C) The plane arrived at 9:00. (D) The plane arrived at 10:00. 3. (A) I’ll ask someone else to read and check this agreement for errors. (B) I’ll think more about the agreement before making a decision. (C) It’s obvious that I’ll discuss the agreement with my assistant first. (D) It’s out of question that I should get into any agreement with you. 4. (A) The better members decided to cancel the meeting. (B) Less than half of the committee was away on business trips. (C) It’d be better if no one had attended this morning’s committee meeting.. (D) The meeting was cancelled because of low attendance. 5. (A) Supermarkets in the inner city and the suburbs are usually owned by the same company. (B) Products in grocery stores are more expensive than those in supermarkets. (C) There is a price difference for the same product even in shops run by the same company. (D) People prefer to shop in supermarkets, which are mostly located in the suburbs, with free parking space. 6. (A) Many Americans cannot afford higher education because of the soaring college tuition fees and expenses. (B) Sending their children to college is no longer a bigger challenge for millions of Americans. (C) The American government has set the goal that it will eventually stop funding higher education institutions. (D) Nowadays, American parents have to pay more to send their children to college. 7. (A) For many university graduates, the jobs they take will not be related to their academic achievements. (B) Because of economic recession, the number of university students majoring in liberal arts is declining. (C) University students who are interested in liberal arts will have more job opportunities upon graduation. (D) With high unemployment rate, many university students will have to opt for transferring to other majors. 8. (A) Good business negotiators will never repeat what other people have already restated. (B) Restating by good business negotiators is not an effective way to check the information. (C) Good business negotiators are sometimes curious about other people’s restatements. (D) Restating what others have said is a good strategy for confirming understanding. 9. (A) We cannot reach an agreement, let alone a spoken promise. (B) We’d better draft and then sign a written agreement. (C) We generally keep our promises in business transactions. (D) We hope you understand why we are unable to keep our promises. 10. (A) I don’t think you have more to say on that topic. (B) I think we’d better talk about that in detail sometime later. (C) I am truly appreciative if you can elaborate on that topic after lunch. (D) I am busy right now, so we might as well discuss it over lunch today. 2. Talks and Conversations Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks and conversations After each of

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these, you will hear a few questions. Listen carefully because you will hear the talk or conversation and questions ONLY ONCE. When you hear a question, read the four choices and choose the best answer to that question. Then write the letter of the answer you have chosen in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. Questions 11—14 11. (A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five 12. (A) A profit-making private school. (B) A non-profit-making independent school. (C) A state school that is funded by non-governmental sources. (D) A secondary school that is open to the majority of British students. 13. (A) Many children are no longer placed in schools according to their academic abilities. (B) Many children can afford to study in private schools, as they become part of the state system. (C) Children from wealthy families no longer choose to go and study in public schools. (D) Cleverer children will be sent to the best private schools in the country for a better development. 14. (A) Clever and less bright children will mix well with each other. (B) School authorities will receive more funds from the government. (C) Most students will do well in their entrance examination for the higher education. (D) Every child will have an equal opportunity to go on to higher education. Questions 15—18 15. (A) One that is unabridged with detailed definitions. (B) One that contains fewer words and emphasizes on special words. (C) One that contains a broad range of words in common usage. (D) One that spans several volumes and has extensive word histories 16. (A) The New Oxford Picture Dictionary (B) The American Heritage Dictionary (C) The Dictionary of Legal Terms (D) The Drinking Water Dictionary 17. (A) It lists abbreviations, proper nouns, and tables of measures. (B) It is an unabridged edition providing as many as 500,000 entries. (C) It was randomly compiled and contains as many foreign words as possible. (D) It provides detailed information of famous people and places. 18. (A) A school dictionary. (B) A college dictionary. (C) A general dictionary. (D) A specialized dictionary. Questions 19—22 19. (A) He’s bought his wife a present. (B) He’s missed an important phone call. (C) He’s dismissed his new secretary. (D) He’s popped out shopping. 20. (A) Talking about the latest fashion. (B) Offering special reductions. (C) Giving bigger discounts to female customers. (D) Pressing on the customer to make a decision. 21. (A) Upside down and inside out. (B) Inside out and back to front. (C) With its sleeves as trouser legs. (D) With its pattern upside down. 22. (A) A V-necked pullover with short sleeves.

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(B) A high-necked pullover with long sleeves. (C) A white pullover with a pattern. (D) A blue pullover with a high neck. Questions 23—26 23. (A) That of a creator. (B) That of a re-creator. (C) That of a receiver. (D) That of a performer. 24. (A) Because we need to concentrate for our quiet thought. (B) Because we want to give full attention to the driving. (C) Because we try to avoid being caught by the patrolling police. (D) Because we intend to be as casual as possible in the driving. 25. (A) In the elevator. (B) In the car. (C) In the bathroom. (D) In the church. 26. (A) By perceptive and analytical listening. (B) By taking a sonic bath. (C) By attending classical concerts. (D) By listening to an emotional piece of music. Questions 27—30 27. (A) His grandfather’s house. (B) His parents’ remarks. (C) A magazine. (D) A coursebook. 28. (A) Enjoying visiting zoos. (B) Driving a car. (C) Making money. (D) Taking kids to a museum. 29. (A) It died a few years ago. (B) It killed several tourists. (C) It is only a legend. (D) It is a living dinosaur. 30. (A) No one has provided an accurate description of the animal. (B) No dead bodies of the animal have ever been found. (C) There are only 500 species living in Loch Ness. (D) The lake is not deep enough for such a huge animal. Part C: Listening and Translation 1. Sentence Translation Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear 5 sentences in English. You will hear the sentences ONLY ONCE. After you have heard each sentence, translate it into Chinese and write your version in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) 2. Passage Translation Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear 2 passages in English. You will hear the passages ONLY ONCE. After you have heard each passage, translate it into Chinese and write your version in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. You may take notes while you are listening. (1) (2)

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SECTION 2: STUDY SKILLS (45 minutes) Directions: In this section, you will read several passages. Each passage is followed by several questions based on its content. You are to choose ONE best answer, (A), (B), (C) or (D), to each question. Answer all the questions following each passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage and write the letter of the answer you have chosen in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. Questions 1—5 The purpose of the American court system is to protect the rights of the people. According to American law, if someone is accused of a crime, he or she is considered innocent until the court proves that the person is guilty. In other words, it is the responsibility of the court to prove that a person is guilty. It is not the responsibility of the person to prove that he or she is innocent. In order to arrest a person, the police have to be reasonably sure that a crime has been committed. The police must give the suspect the reasons why they are arresting him and tell him his rights under the law. Then the police take the suspect to the police station to “book” him. “Booking means that the name of the person and the charges against him are formally listed at the police station. The next step is for the suspect to go before a judge. The judge decides whether the suspect should be kept in jail or released. If the suspect has no previous criminal record and the judge feels that he will return to court rather than run away—for example, because he owns a house and has a family—he can go free. Otherwise, the suspect must put up bail. At this time, too, the judge will appoint a court layer to defend the suspect if he can’t afford one. The suspect returns to court a week or two later. A lawyer from the district attorney’s office presents a case against the suspect. This is called a hearing. The attorney may present evidence as well as witnesses. The judge at the hearing then decides whether there is enough reason to hold a trial. If the judge decides that there is sufficient evidence to call for a trial, he or she sets a date for the suspect to appear in court to formally plead guilty or not guilty. At the trial, a jury of 12 people listens to the evidence from both attorneys and hears the testimony of the witnesses. Then the jury goes into a private room to consider the evidence and decide whether the defendant is guilty of the crime. If the jury decides that the defendant is innocent, he goes free. However, if he is convicted, the judge sets a date for the defendant to appear in court again for sentencing. At this time, the judge tells the convicted person what his punishment will be. The judge may sentence him to prison, order him to pay a fine, or place him on probation. The American justice system is very complex and sometimes operates slowly. However, every step is designed to protect the rights of the people. These individual rights are the basis, or foundation, of the American government. 1. What is the main idea of the passage? (A) The American court system requires that a suspect prove that he or she is innocent. (B) The US court system is designed to protect the rights of the people. (C) Under the American court system, judge decides if a suspect is innocent or guilty. (D) The US court system is designed to help the police present a case against the suspect. 2. What follows ‘in other words’ (para.1)? (A) An example of the previous sentence. (B) A new idea about the court system. (C) An item of evidence to call for a trial.

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(D) A restatement of the previous sentence. 3. According to the passage, ‘he can go free’ (para.3) means _________. (A) the suspect is free to choose a lawyer to defend him (B) the suspect does not have to go to trial because the judge has decided he is innocent (C) the suspect will be informed by mail whether he is innocent or not (D) the suspect does not have to wait in jail or pay money until he goes to trial 4. What is the purpose of having the suspect pay bail? (A) To pay for the judge and the trial. (B) To pay for a court lawyer to defend the suspect. (C) To ensure that the suspect will return to court. (D) To ensure that the suspect will appear in prison. 5. According to the passage, which of the following statements is true? (A) The American justice system sometimes operates slowly. (B) The police can arrest a suspect without giving any reasons. (C) It is the responsibility of the suspect to prove he is innocent. (D) The jury considers the evidence in the court room. Questions 6—10 So you’ve got an invention—you and around 39,000 others each year, according to 2002 statistics! The 64,000-dollar question, if you have come up with a device which you believe to be the answer to the energy crisis or you’ve invented a lawnmower which cuts grass with a jet of water (not so daft, someone has invented one), is how to ensure you’re the one to reap the rewards of your ingenuity. How will all you garden shed boffins out there keep others from capitalizing on your ideas and lining their pockets at your expense? One of the first steps to protect your interest is to patent your invention. That can keep it out of the grasp of the pirates for at least the next 20 years. And for this reason inventors in their droves beat a constant trail from all over the country to the doors of an anonymous grey-fronted building just behind London’s Holborn to try and patent their devices. The building houses the Patent Office. It’s an ant heap of corridors, offices and filing rooms—a sorting house and storage depot for one of the world’s biggest and most varied collections of technical data. Some ten million patents—English and foreign—are listed there. File after file, catalogue after catalogue detail the brain-children of inventors down the centuries, from a 1600’s machine gun designed to fire square bullets at infidels and round ones at Christians, to present-day laser, nuclear and computer technology. The first ‘letters patent’ were granted as long ago as 1449 to a Flemish craftsman by the name of John Utynam. The letters, written in Latin, are still on file at the office. They were granted by King Henry VI and entitled Utynam to ‘import into this country’ his knowledge of making stained glass windows in order to install such windows at Eton College. Present-day patents procedure is a more sophisticated affair than getting a go-ahead note from the monarch. These days the strict procedures governing whether you get a patent for your revolutionary mouse-trap or solar-powered back-scratcher have been reduced to a pretty exact science. From start to finish it will take around two and a half years and cost ?165 for the inventor to gain patent protection for his brainchild. That’s if he’s lucky. By no means all who apply to the Patent Office, which is a branch of the Department of Trade, get a patent.

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A key man at the Patent Office is Bernard Partridge, Principal Examiner (Administration), who boils down to one word the vital ingredient any inventor needs before he can hope to overcome the many hurdles in the complex procedure of obtaining a patent—‘ingenuity’. 6. People take out a patent because they want to __________. (A) keep their ideas from being stolen (B) reap the rewards of somebody else’s ingenuity (C) visit the patent office building (D) come up with more new devices 7. The phrase ‘the brain-children of inventors’ (para.5) means _________. (A) the children with high intelligence (B) the inventions that people come up with (C) a device that a child believes to be the answer to the energy crisis (D) a lawnmower that an individual has invented to cut grass 8. What have the 1600’s machine gun and the present-day laser in common? (A) Both were approved by the monarch. (B) Both were granted by King Henry VI. (C) Both were rejected by the Department of Trade. (D) Both were patented. 9. Why is John Utynam still remembered? (A) He is the first person to get a patent for his revolutionary mouse-trap. (B) He is the first person to be granted an official patent. (C) He is the first person to be an officer in the Patent Office. (D) He is the first person to have invented a lawnmower. 10. According to the passage, how would you describe the complex procedure of obtaining a patent for an invention? (A) It is rather expensive. (B) It is an impossible task. (C) It is extremely difficult. (D) It is very tricky. Questions 11—15 All living cells on earth require moisture for their metabolism. Cereal grains when brought in from the field, although they may appear to be dry, may contain 20 per cent of moisture or more. If they are stored in a bin thus, there is sufficient moisture in them to support several varieties of insects. These insects will, therefore, live and breed and, as they grow and eat the grain, it provides them with biological energy for their life processes. This energy will, just as in man, become manifest as heat. Since the bulk of the grain acts as an insulator, the temperature surrounding the colony of insects will rise so that, not only is part of the grain spoiled by the direct attack of the insects but more may be damaged by the heat. Sometimes, the temperature may even rise to the point where the stored grain catches fire. For safe storage, grain must be dried until its moisture content is 13 per cent or less. Traditional arts of food preservation took advantage of this principle in a number of ways. The plant seeds, wheat, rye, rice, barley millet, maize, are themselves structures evolved by nature to provide stored food. The starch of their endosperm is used for the nourishment of the embryo during the time it over-winters (if it is a plant of the Temperate Zone) and until its new leaves have

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grown and their chlorophyll can trap energy from the sunlight to nourish the new-grown plant. The separation by threshing and winnowing is, therefore, to some degree part of a technique of food preservation. The direct drying of other foods has also been used. Fish has been dried in many parts of the world besides Africa. Slices of dried meat are prepared by numerous races. Biltong, a form of dried meat, was a customary food for travelers. The drying of meat or fish, either in the sun or over a fire, quite apart from the degree to which it exposes the food to infection by bacteria and infestation by insects, tends also to harm its quality. Proteins are complex molecular structures which are readily disrupted. This is the reason why dried meat becomes tough and can, with some scientific justification, by likened to leather. The technical process of drying foods indirectly by pickling them in the strong salt solutions commonly called ‘brine’ does less harm to the protein than straightforward drying, particularly if this is carried out at high temperatures. It is for this reason that many of the typical drying processes are not taken to completion. That is to say, the outer parts may be dried leaving a moist inner section. Under these circumstances, preservation is only partial. The dried food keeps longer than it would have undried but it cannot be kept indefinitely. For this reason, traditional processes are to be found in many parts of the world in which a combination of partial drying and pickling in brine is used. Quite often the drying involves exposure to smoke. Foods treated in this way are, besides fish of various sorts, bacon, hams and numerous types of sausages. 11. According to the passage, insects spoil stored cereals by ________. (A) consuming all the grain themselves (B) generating heat and raising the surrounding temperature (C) increasing the moisture content in the grain (D) attacking each other for more grain 12. In speaking of the traditional methods of food preservation, the writer ________. (A) expresses doubts about direct smoking (B) describes salting and pickling as ineffective (C) condemns direct drying (D) mentions threshing and winnowing 13. Direct drying affects the quality of meat or fish because ________. (A) it exposes them to insects (B) it makes them hard (C) it damages the protein (D) it develops bacteria 14. We can learn from the passage that salting preserves food by ________. (A) destroying the protein (B) drawing away moisture from the food (C) drying the food in the sun (D) dressing the food 15. According to the passage, partial drying is useful because ________. (A) it damages the protein less (B) it can be combined with pickling (C) it leaves the inside moist (D) it makes the food soft

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Questions 16—20 We are moving inexorably into the age of automation. Our aim is not to devise a mechanism which can perform a thousand different actions of any individual man but, on the contrary, one which could by a single action replace a thousand men. Industrial automation has moved along three lines. First there is the conveyor belt system of continuous production whereby separate operations are linked into a single sequence. The goods produced by this well-established method are untouched by the worker, and the machine replaces both unskilled and semiskilled. Secondly, there is automation with feedback control of the quality of the product: here mechanisms are built into the system which can compare the output with a norm, that is, the actual product with what it is supposed to be, and then correct any shortcomings. The entire cycle of operations dispenses with human control except in so far as monitors are concerned. One or two examples of this type of automation will illustrate its immense possibilities. There is a factory in the U.S.A. which makes 1,000 million electric light bulbs a year, and the factory employs three hundred people. If the preautomation techniques were to be employed, the labour force required would leap to 25,000. A motor manufacturing company with 45,000 spare parts regulates their entire supply entirely by computer. Computers can be entrusted with most of the supervision of industrial installations, such as chemical plants or oil refineries. Thirdly, there is computer automation, for banks, accounting departments, insurance companies and the like. Here the essential features are the recording, storing, sorting and retrieval of information. The principal merit of modern computing machines is the achievement of their vastly greater speed of operation by comparison with unaided human effort; a task which otherwise might take years, if attempted at all, now takes days or hours. One of the most urgent problems of industrial societies rapidly introducing automation is how to fill the time that will be made free by the machines which will take over the tasks of the workers. The question is not simply of filling empty time but also of utilizing the surplus human energy that will be released. We are already seeing straws in the wind: destructive outbursts on the part of youth whose work no longer demands muscular strength. While automation will undoubtedly do away with a large number of tedious jobs, are we sure that it will not put others which are equally tedious in their place? For an enormous amount of sheer monitoring will be required. A man in an automated plant may have to sit for hours on and watching dials and taking decisive action when some signal informs him that all is not well. What meaning will his occupation bear for the worker? How will he devote his free time after a four or five hour stint of labour? Moreover, what, indeed, will be the significance for him of his leisure? If industry of the future could be purged of its monotony and meaninglessness, man would then be better equipped to use his leisure time constructively. 16. The main purpose of automation is _________. (A) to devise the machine which could replace the semi-skilled (B) to process information as fast as possible (C) to develop an efficient labor-saving mechanism (D) to make an individual man perform many different actions 17. The chief benefit of computing machines is ________. (A) their greater speed of operation (B) their control of the product quality (C) their conveyor belt system of continuous production

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(D) their supervision of industrial installations 18. One of the problems brought about by automation in industrial societies is _________. (A) plenty of information (B) surplus human energy (C) destructive outbursts (D) less leisure time 19. Which of the following best explains the use of ‘stint’ (para.4)? (A) Effort. (B) Force. (C) Excess. (D) Period. 20. According to the passage, which of the following statements is true? (A) There is no automation with feedback control of the quality of the product. (B) Computers are reliable in any supervision of industrial installations. (C) The essential features for banks are the recording and sorting of information. (D) Automation will undoubtedly eliminate numerous tedious jobs. Questions 21—25 The city water pipes in Rome were usually of baked clay or lead; copper was sometimes used and also hollowed stone. For the large supply conduits leading to the city the Romans used covered channels with free water surfaces, rather than pipes. Perhaps this choice was a matter of economics, for apparently they could make lead pipes up to 15 inches in diameter. While pipes can follow the profile of undulating ground, with the pressure increasing in the lower areas, channels cannot. They must slope continuously downwards, because water in channels does not normally flow uphill; and the grade must be flat, from 1 in 60 in small channels to perhaps 1 in 3,000 in large ones, to keep the water speed down to a few feet per second. Thus the main supply channels or aqueducts had long lengths of flat grade and where they crossed depressions or valleys they were carried on elevated stone bridges in the form of tiered arches. At the beginning of the Christian era there were over 30 miles of these raised aqueducts in the 250 miles of channels and tunnels bringing water to Rome. The channels were up to 6 feet wide and 5 to 8 feet high. Sometimes channels were later added on the tops of existing ones. The remains of some of these aqueducts still grace the skyline on the outskirts of Rome and elsewhere in Europe similar ruins are found. Brick and stone drains were constructed in various parts of Rome. The oldest existing one is the Cloaca Maxima which follows the course of an old stream. It dates back at least to the third century B.C. Later the drains were used for sewage, flushed by water from the public baths and fountains, as well as street storm run-off. The truly surprising aspect of the achievements of all the ancient hydraulic artisans is the lack of theoretical knowledge behind their designs. Apart from the hydrostatics of Archimedes, there was no sound understanding of the most elementary principles of fluid behaviour. Sextus Frontinus, Rome’s water commissioner around A.D. 100, did not fully realize that in order to calculate the volume rate of flow in a channel it is necessary to allow for the speed of the flow as well as the area of cross-section. The Romans’ flow standard was the rate at which water would flow through a bronze pipe roughly 4/3 inch in diameter and 9 inches long. When this pipe was connected to the side of a water-supply pipe or channel as a delivery outlet, it was assumed that the outflow was at

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the standard rate. In fact, the amount of water delivered depended not only on the cross-sectional area of the outlet pipe but also on the speed of water flowing through it and this speed depended on the pressure in the supply pipe. 21. The Romans used all of the following to make water pipes EXCEPT _________. (A) earth (B) wood (C) copper (D) stone 22. Covered channels were used instead of pipes to supply large quantities of water probably because _________. (A) the Romans could build them more cheaply (B) these channels could follow uneven ground more easily (C) the Romans could not build large pipes (D) these channels avoided rapid changes of pressure 23. The use of ‘grace’ in line 15 suggests that the aqueducts today are _________. (A) hideous (B) divine (C) useful (D) attractive 24. In order to calculate the volume of water flowing through a pipe, it is important to know its speed and ________. (A) the area across the end of the pipe (B) the length of the pipe (C) the water pressure in the pipe (D) the level from which the water falls 25. The main subject of the passage is concerned essentially with __________. (A) the classical scientific achievements (B) the theoretical Greek hydrostatics (C) the ancient Roman hydraulic system (D) the early European architectural designing Questions 26—30 Every day of our lives we are in danger of instant death from small high-speed missiles from space—the lumps of rocky or metallic debris which continuously bombard the Earth. The chances of anyone actually being hit, however, are very low, although there are recorded instances of ‘stones from the sky’ hurting people, and numerous accounts of damage to buildings and other objects. At night this extraterrestrial material can be seen as ‘fireballs’ or ‘shooting stars’, burning their way through our atmosphere. Most, on reaching our atmosphere, become completely vaporised. The height above ground at which these objects become sufficiently heated to be visible is estimated to be about 60-100 miles. Meteorites that have fallen on buildings have sometimes ended their long lonely space voyage incongruously under beds, inside flower pots or even, in the case of one that landed on a hotel in North Wales, within a chamber pot. Before the era of space exploration it was confidently predicted that neither men nor space vehicles would survive for long outside the protective blanket of the Earth’s atmosphere. It was thought that once in space they would be seriously damaged as a result of the incessant downpour of meteorites falling towards our planet at the rate of many millions every day. Even the first satellites showed that the danger from meteorites had been greatly overestimated by the pessimists, but although it has not happened yet, it is certain that one day a spacecraft will be badly damaged by a meteorite. The greatest single potential danger to life on Earth undoubtedly comes from outside our planet. Collision with another astronomical body of any size or with a ‘black hole’ could completely destroy the Earth almost instantly. Near misses of bodies larger than or comparable in size to our own planet could be equally disastrous to mankind as they might still result in total or partial

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disruption. If the velocity of impact were high, collision with even quite small extraterrestrial bodies might cause catastrophic damage to the Earth’s atmosphere, oceans and outer crust and thus produce results inimical to life as we know it. The probability of collision with a large astronomical body from outside our Solar System is extremely low, possibly less than once in the lifetime of an average star. We know, however, that our galaxy contains great interstellar dust clouds and some astronomers have suggested that there might also be immense streams of meteorite matter in space that the Solar system may occasionally encounter. Even if we disregard this possibility, our own Solar system itself contains a great number of small astronomical bodies, such as the minor planets or asteroids and the comets, some with eccentric orbits that occasionally bring them close to the Earth’s path. 26. According to the writer, the Earth is being continuously bombarded by _________. (A) big bright stars from space (B) man-made space vehicles (C) great interstellar dust clouds (D) small high-speed pieces of rock from space 27. The word “vaporised” (para.1) means _________. (A) turned from stones into missiles (B) turned from a fireball into black (C) turned from a solid into a gas (D) turned from meteors into shooting stars 28. Why was it once thought that no spacecraft would survive for very long in space? (A) People believed that spacecraft would be destroyed in a black hole. (B) People believed that spacecraft would be misguided by missiles. (C) People believed that spacecraft would be collided with a star. (D) People believed that spacecraft would be damaged by meteorites. 29. What is the greatest danger to life on Earth? (A) Collision with small high-speed missiles. (B) Collision with an astronomical body. (C) Collision with stones from the sky. (D) Collision with spacecrafts. 30. According to the passage, which of the following statements is true? (A) Our galaxy contains great interstellar dust clouds. (B) Near misses of bodies smaller than our own planet could be disastrous. (C) The probability of collision with a large astronomical body is very high. (D) The chances of anyone actually being hit by missiles are very high. SECTION 3: TRANSLATION TEST (1) (30 minutes) Directions: Translate the following passage into Chinese and write your version in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. The culture of any society is usually thought to be of two kinds: material and nonmaterial. Material culture includes the man-made phenomena which have physical properties such as height, breadth, and weight. A boat, a machine, a house—all these objects are part of the material culture. The nonmaterial culture is that portion of the environment which surrounds man and which has an impact on his behavior but which lacks these material properties: values, beliefs, traditions, and all

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the other habits and ideas invented and acquired by man as a member of society. Contemporary sociological theory tends to assign primary importance to the nonmaterial culture in choosing problems for study. It assumes, for example, that boats, planes, automobiles, and so forth, are not nearly so important as the traditions we have developed which make their manufacture possible—indeed, which prescribe how we are to use them. The emphasis of contemporary sociology is to insist that the material culture would not exist had not the nonmaterial culture first been available to suggest the ideas which are embodied in the inventions of material culture. SECTION 4: TRANSLATION TEST (2) (30 minutes) Directions: Translate the following passage into English and write your version in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. 进入耶鲁大学的校园,看到莘莘学子青春洋溢的脸庞,呼吸着书香浓郁的空气,我不由回想 起 40 年前在北京清华大学度过的美好时光。当年老师们对我的教诲,同学们给我的启发, 我至今仍受用不尽。 耶鲁大学以悠久的发展历史、独特的办学风格、卓著的学术成就闻名于世。如果时光能够倒 流几十年,我真希望成为你们中的一员。耶鲁大学校训强调追求光明和真理,这符合人类进 步的法则,也符合每个有志青年的心愿。

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参考答案: SECTION ONE:LISTENING TEST PART A SPOT DICTATION 1. the trend 2. cancer and heart disease 3. similar and a reviving jolt 4. a long tradition 5. at 5 o'clock 6. smiling hostess 7. disturbed 8. deserve to be shot 9. do adore 10. down the wash basin 11. breakfast 12. Then, after lunch 13. at night 14. following circumstances 15. exhausted 16. Before you go out 17. for some time 18. follow my example 19. cups of black coffee 20. most unusual drinks PART B LISTENING COMPREHENSION Statements: 1-5 CCBDC 6-10 DADBB L&C 11-14 CBAD 15-18 CBAD 19-22 DCBA 23-26 CBDA 27-30 CADB PART C LISTENING AND TRANSLATIONG Sentence translation 1. 昨天我们过的很愉快。我们先去了情人港(达令港)吃午饭,然后开车在悉尼市内兜风, 看了看这个城市。 2. 中国经济明年预计增长超过 8%,大多数投资专家都对明年的经济形势表示非常乐观。 3. 尽管身边环境过于拥挤,且工作时间过长,带来很大压力,但日本的男性普遍寿命都达 到 75 岁,而女性平均寿命达 81 岁。 4. 虽然工程师们无法确定,新计划是否会有效,但它看起来是解决问题的好方法,至少书 面上看起来是这样。 5. 很多美国的高中生在考试中作弊。在我们最近调查的八千名学生中,70%的学生承认在

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最近一学年中至少做过一次作弊。 Passage translation 1. 自从我父母离婚之后,我从一个被宠坏的孩子,转变成了一个通情达理的大学生。在父 母离婚前,我认为母亲就应该服侍我。母亲为我洗衣服,做饭,洗碗,甚至还为我铺床。我 15 岁时父亲离开了我们,然后一切都变了。母亲找了份全职工作来供养我们,我就成了那 个有时间来做家务的人。同时,我还在周末做兼职来挣自己的零花钱。生活不易,但我很高 兴自己不再是那个被宠坏的孩子了。 2. 与政府存在合约关系的美国公司经常面临这样的选择,究竟购买价格昂贵的美国产的产 品,还是价格低廉的外国出产的产品。如果某公司选择购买美国产品,可能会因为未能把价 格压低而激怒纳税人。 但如果购买外国产品, 则可能让美国工人面临失去工作的危险。 最近, 美国国会通过法律,勒令与政府签过合同的美国公司优先考虑本国产品和服务。 SECTION 2: STUDY SKILLS 1-5 B D D C A 6-10 A B D B C 11-15 B D C D C 16-20 C A B D D 21-25 B A D A C 26-30 D C D B A

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2006.3 上海市英语中级口译岗位资格证书考试 第一阶段笔试试题 SECTION 1: LISTENING TEST (45 minutes) Part A: Spot Dictation Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear a passage and read the same passage with blanks in it. Fill in each of the blanks with the ward or words you have heard on the tape. Write your answer in the corresponding space in you ANSWER BOOKLET. Remember you will hear the passage only once. In the early 1970's, Citibank of New York City became one of the first financial institutions to install ATM's on a large scale. Since then, the_______(1) of automated teller machines has increased dramatically. At the time, the bank hoped________ (2) their operating costs by replacing human tellers with machines. Little did they _______ (3) that the cash machines would become so successful. However, as more banks added_______ (4) automated service through ATM's, the machines mushroomed all over the world. To use an ATM, all you need is a _______(5) issued by your bank. Your bank may also_______(6) through a credit card, such as MasterCard or Visa. To begin a _______(7), you need to insert the card into an ATM and punch in a personal identification number on the _______(8). The personal ID number may consist of_______(9) and can prevent anyone from using the card. The ATM next flashes instructions on its_______(10) for carrying out transaction. To get cash, for example, you are instructed to _______(11) that indicate whether the money should be withdrawn form a checking or a savings account and the _______(12). This request is then displayed on the screen. After you press a button to _______(13) that the information is correct, the ATM goes to _______(14). How safe, you may ask, is banking by ATM? The_______(15) is meant to prevent anyone, no matter who you are, from using a cash card________(16). If you enter the wrong ID number for a card, a message on the screen will_______(18). As another precaution against_______(19), the bank generally limits the amount that may be withdrawn by cash card______(20), say, to $200. Part B: Listening Comprehension Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short statements. These statements will be spoken ONLY ONCE, and you will not find them written on the paper; so you must listen carefully. When you hear a statement, read the answer choices and decide which one is closest in meaning to the statement you have heard. Then write the letter of the answer you have chosen in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. 1. Statements 1. (A) We didn't find one qualified applicant. (B) Nobody applied for the job. (C) Only one person applied for the job. (D) We interviewed nine candidates. 2. (A) Florence finished her speech with some introductory remarks. (B) Florence found herself making a speech when the speaker became ill. (C) Florence came along with a fluent introduction about the eminent speaker. (D) Had the speaker not been ill, he would have made some introductory remarks. 3. (A) I cannot finish the report in time. (B) I hate to join in social activities this weekend. (C) I have to work extra time over the weekend. (D) I will not attend the board meeting next week. 4. (A) The director is too busy to attend to your proposal right now. (B) The director will help you read the proposal tomorrow morning.

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(C) You should hand in your proposal no later than tomorrow morning. (D) You can make an appointment to see the director the next day. 5. (A) We'll ask for more time to finish the financial plan. (B) We'll look for more information for the plan later than expected. (C) I'm afraid we'll turn in the financial plan later than expected. (D) We'll have to finish the plan with the materials available now. 6. (A) Talking too much in business negotiations leaves a bad impression o Americans. (B) Silence often makes Americans feel uncomfortable in business situations. (C) Americans enjoy keeping silent in business negotiations and employ a variety of strategies. (D) Americans are rather aggressive, especially in business situations. 7.(A) I think now it is the best time to do business in China, though we have had a 50-year relationship. (B) I believe that we could have done more business with China over the past 50 years. (C) Although our company has a history of over 50 years, we are unable to start our business in China. (D) Despite our good relationship over the past 50 years, we need to find a better time for investment here. 8. (A) The director has already signed the agreement. (B) The director has read the agreement for three times (C) The director is not in and cannot sign the agreement. (D) The director is not ready to sign the agreement. 9. (A) We cannot compete with our rivals, since we have just started our business here. (B) We want to have more customers, so we're ready to make more favourable offers (C) We are unable to provide the best service here, because we do not have enough competitive advantage. (D) We plan to merge our competitors in this area, as we are growing and have more customers. 10. (A) A diet with meat only is not enough for our body. (B) A diet with vegetables can sometimes be very costly. (C) Meatless meals are equally nutritious and less expensive. (D) Meatless meals cannot provide all the essential nutrients. 2. Talks and Conversations Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear Several short talks and conversations. After each of these, you will hear a few questions. Listen carefully because you will hear the talk or conversation and questions Only ONCE. When you hear a question, read the four answer choices and choose the best answer to that question. Then write the letter of the answer you have chosen in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. Questions 11-14 11. (A) She was fired. (B) She was given a raise. (C) She got a transfer. (D) She got married. 12. (A) They bought her a birthday gift. (B) They gave her a farewell party. (C) They surprised her during the party. (D) They saw her off at the airport.

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13. (A) She was invited to stay with Nancy in New York. (B) She was warned not to give the surprise away. (C) She was unable to keep a secret. (D) She was a good friend of Nancy's. 14. (A) The man. (B) Nancy. (C) Mrs Sampson. (D) Christina. Questions 15-18 15. (A) Sending invitation cards to as many people as possible. (B) Reserving a table at least one day in advance. (C) Taking your order before you are seated. (D) Keeping calm and talking to your clients. 16. (A) A soup. (B) Some cold dishes. (C) A salad. (D) A drink. 17. (A) Consult the waiter about the dish in question. (B) Tell everyone that you have certain dietary restrictions. (C) Write beforehand to say that you don't care for some dishes. (D) Keep quiet and pretend that you enjoy the food. 18. (A) Over your lap. (B) On the chair. (C) Under the plate. (D) Beside the plate. Questions 19-22 19. (A) In a holiday camp. (B) In a caravan park. (C) In a hotel. (D) In a restaurant. 20. (A) Because they had driven for a long time. (B) Because they had booked for another time. (C) Because they had planned to have their supper first. (D) Because they had found a better place to stay in. 21 (A) She can avoid doing a lot of farm work. (B) She wants to stay in some quiet and peaceful place. (C) Her husband especially cares for seafood. (D) Her children enjoy building sandcastles. 22. (A) In the car. (B) In the lounge. (C) In a farm. (D) In a quiet corner. Questions 23-26 23. (A) In New Zealand. (B) In the USA.

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(C) In England. (D) In Japan. 24. (A) Because they want to feel the thrill and excitement. (B) Because they are tired of modern-day university life. (C) Because they are interested in the scientific experiment. (D) Because they find that it is the best way to reduce weight. 25. (A) Jumping into the sea. (B) Jumping onto the cliff. (C) Jumping with a body harness. (D) Jumping with a leg harness. 26. (A) Be over the age of 18. (B) Receive due instructions. (C) Join a sports club. (D) Pay for the rubber band. Questions 27-30 27. (A) Paper Research. (B) Examination Method. (C) Comparative Literature. (D) University Seminar System. 28. (A) A college course in which new ideas and subjects are introduced. (B) A university class in which topics are discussed among the students. (C) A system where university students are allowed to choose their teachers. (D) A gathering where only teachers and students of about the same age can attend. 29. (A) They were boring. (B) They were good lecturers. (C) They seldom asked questions. (D) They talked too much in class. 30. (A) The unanswered questions during the lectures. (B) The discussion with the serious professors. (C) The results of his final examinations. (D) The low marks he had scored during the term. Part C: Listening and Translation 1. Sentence Translation Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear 5 sentences in English. You will hear the sentences ONLY ONCE. After you have heard each sentence, translate it into Chinese and write your version in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) 2. Passage Translation Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear 2 passages in English. You will hear the passages ONLY ONCE. After you have heard each passage, translate it into Chinese and write your version in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. You may take notes while you are listening. (1)

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(2) SECTION 2: STUDY SKILLS Directions: In this section, you will read several passages. Each passage is followed by several questions based on its content. You are to choose ONE best answer, (A), (B), (C) or (D), to each question. Answer all the questions following each passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage and write the letter of the answer you have chosen in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. Questions 1-5 One of the most disturbing statistics I've read for a long time was published this week. The Work Foundation claims that job satisfaction in this country has fallen alarmingly. Women's satisfaction level has fallen from 51 percent in 1992 to 29 percent today; men's has fallen from 35 percent to 20. The reason-the long-hours culture and job insecurity. For my father's generation, work was something that had to be endured so that real life could be maintained. But my generation has been gulled into thinking that work is real life. Most work is not satisfying. Most work stinks. Most work, however well paid, is meaningless and dull. But somehow we've been convinced that work provides self-fulfillment. Before Mrs Thatcher, we had a famous British attitude to work--the less we did the better. Thatcher introduced the idea that, in a world where identity was so fragile, you could become real through work, through long hours and assiduous consumption, in the small amount of time you had been left after clocking off. Now Blair carries on the crusade, I've got one of the best jobs in the world--siV3ng in an once by myself all day trying to make up something that someone somewhere wit! be interested in. But I'd rather be stretched out in front of the TV, or in bed, or playing tennis, or doing just about anything else. Much of feminist thought has been about getting what men have traditionally had without examining the underlying assumption of whether it was worth having. Feminism never ended up with a life built around creative leisure, instead, women of talent and drive threw themselves into the labour pool, believing that work and its attendant income and power would affect the change of life and consciousness that would liberate them. Can anything be done? Only if we're willing to change the way we've been tricked into thinking. Most people now measure their lives primarily in units of currency--money saved and spent. I have a friend who'll travel halfway across London for a shoe sale, without factoring in how much of her precious time has been spent travelling. The most important truth I know is that ail we ever own is the time we were given on this earth. We need to seize it back. Now the future has arrived, and we have the means to do it--we just don't have the imagination. 1. Before the British were persuaded to realize themselves through hard work, (A) they had little time left to themselves (B) they had struggled hard for equal treatment (C) they had enjoyed themselves more (D) they had a strong desire to be set free from work 2. The sentence "Now Blair carries on the crusade" (para. 3) could be best illustrated by which of the following statements? (A) Blair continues to promote the idea of achieving self-fulfillment through work. (B) Blair opposes his people to be workaholic and has launched such a campaign. (C) Blair sets a perfect example as a hard-working person for his people in the UK. (D) Blair is most unwilling to have his people labouring as slaves. 3. What is the author's attitude towards women's joining the workforce? (A) Supportive. (B) Negative. (C) Appreciative.

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(D) Defensive. 4. What is the purpose of the author in mentioning her friend who travelled halfway across London for a shoe sale? (A) To praise her friend for her persistence in pursuing what she wants. (B) To introduce her friend to the general public. (C) To give an urgent call for people to take life easy. (D) To raise people's awareness as to how precious time is. 5. Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the passage? (A) What's So Good about Hard Work? (B) What'd You Imagine for the Future? (C) Work Makes Everyone Free, (D)Seize Time Back for Your Own Sake. Questions 6-10 "I delight in Buckingham Palace", said Queen Victoria, when she moved in three weeks after ascending to the throne. Today the 40-acre secluded garden contains specimen shrubs trees and a large lake. Eight to nine thousand people visit it during the annual garden parties. It took George IV, on becoming King in 1820, and John Nash, Surveyor-general to George IV when he was Prince Regent, many years to turn the house into a sumptuous palace. Nash demolished the North and South wings and rebuilt them. He constructed Marble Arch as a grand entrance to the enlarged courtyard. As work continued, Nash let his costs run away with him. and Parliament complained. Joseph Hume, ml English politician and reformer fighting for financial retrenchment, said, "The Crown of England does not require such splendour. Foreign countries might indulge in frippery, but England ought to pride herself on her plainness and simplicity." Nevertheless, elegance reigned. Queen Victoria was crowned in 1837. When she moved in, Buckingham Palace became, for the first time, the official London residence of Britain's sovereigns. There wasn't a room large enough for grand entertainments, so in 1853-55, Queen Victoria ordered the Ballroom built. 122 feet long, 60 feet wide and 45 feet high, it is, today, used for many events such as the State Banquet, the Diplomatic Reception, and memorial concerts. This is the site of Investitures, where the Queen (who was crowned in 1952) presents the recipients of British honours with their awards. During World War 11 a chapel, converted by Queen Victoria from Nash's conservatory, was bombed. Prince Philip oversaw its rebuilding as the Queen's Gallery, home to a rotating collection of art from the Royal Collection. The Gallery, currently in the process of renovation, will reopen in 2002 for the Queen's Golden Jubilee. More than 600 rooms, including 52 Royal and guest bedrooms, 188 staff bedrooms, 92 offices and 78 bathrooms comprise the castle's assets. But the "room" best known around the world is the Balcony where the Royal family' gathers on celebratory' and solemn occasions to be seen by' their subjects. The Palace is more than a home for the Royals. It is the official administrative headquarters of the monarchy and contains the offices of their staff. It is the place where all Royal ceremonies and official banquets are held. Government ministers, top civil servants and heads of state visit to carry out their duties. It brings a whole new meaning to the phrase 'working from home'. 6. What was the result of Joseph Hume's fighting for financial retrenchment? (A) He succeeded in cutting the budget of Nash's rebuilding work. (B) His opposition turned out a failure and the palace was built with extravagance. (C) He became Nash's strong opponent and they fought with each other since then. (D) He came to fame as a well-known reformer for financial retrenchment. 7. According to the passage, which of the following are NOT supposed to be held in the Ballroom? (A) Investitures. (B) Government banquets. (C) Religious services. (D) Diplomatic receptions. 8. According to "the Queen's Golden Jubilee" (para. 3), how long has been the reign of the Queen?

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(A) It has to be 25 years under the reign of the Queen. (B) 45 years should be the minimum for the Queen's Golden Jubilee. (C) At her age of 50, people usually celebrate the Queen's Golden Jubilee. (D)The Queen's Golden Jubilee would be celebrated at her 50 year's reign. 9. Why does Buckingham Palace bring a new meaning to the phrase "working from home"? (A) Because Government offices are located in Buckingham Palace. (B) Because the Royal family live and work in Buckingham Palace. (C) Because all Royal ceremonies and official banquets are held in Buckingham Palace. (D) Because the Royal staff have their offices and residences in Buckingham Palace. 10. According to the passage, which is the most famous place in Buckingham Palace? (A) The Ballroom. (B) The Queen's Gallery. (C) Marble Arch. (D) The Balcony, Questions 11-15 The Lake District in north-west England is an area remarkably little affected by industrialization. The principal activity is still sheep-farming, as it has been for a thousand years, and many ancient words like ‘fell' for ‘hill' and ‘tam' for ‘lake' are still in daily use. In spite of its heavy rainfall and relative inaccessibility, its special atmosphere and spectacular natural beauty combine to make this one of England's favourite holiday areas at all seasons of the year. But at Christmas 1968, still gripped by the fear that foot-and-mouth disease could spread to the hill flocks and sweep like wildfire right up to the Scottish border, it was quieter than ever before in this century. Luckily not a single farm had caught tile infection, the nearest case having been an isolated one at Kendal several weeks before. but every Lakeland farmer knows that one case among the unfenced hill flocks on the fells could lead to complete annihilation of hundreds of thousands of sheep and the virtual end of the district's principal industry; you cannot replace sheep, acclimatized to their own part of the fell for generations, in the same way that you can replace cattle in a field. Nobody could remember a Christmas like it, especially Boxing Dab, which is traditionally one of the big outdoor holidays of the Lakeland year. Normally this is a day spent following the mountain packs of hounds, felt-walking and, if the weather is propitious, skiing and skating, but this time there were none of these things. Visitors were actively discouraged, and those who did come were asked not to go on the fells, footpaths or bridleways or near farmland, while motorists were requested not to drive on minor roads and to shun the smaller valleys. The enterprising hotels which had earlier in the year decided to keep open during the winter were by the end of October having a desperate time. Hundreds of bookings had been cancelled and scores of dinner parties and young farmers' reunions eliminated. All youth hostels were closed. At least one climbing club, unable to climb, substituted a training programme of films and simulated climbs on the more substantial municipal buildings. The weather in the area was dry, crisp, windless and cold, in fact ideal for brisk outdoor activities. But nobody was able to enjoy it. Everything was stopped: hunting, walking, climbing, skiing, motor cycle trials, sporting events of every description. All the seasonal dances, festivals, conferences, shepherds' meets and a hundred and one other social occasions abandoned. The ice was bearing on some of the lakes but you could not go skating there. Meanwhile the foxes, emboldened by an unprecedented freedom from harassment, were stalking closer to the farms and the flocks of Christmas turkeys, while the hounds sulked miserably in their kennels. Farmers are apt to criticize some sections of the outdoor fraternity for their occasional thoughtless behaviour, but the way that walkers, climbers, skiers, fishermen, hunters and the rest went out of their way to help them at this time should never be forgotten. The general public, locals and visitors a like., tried to give the fell farmers a sporting chance, and this remarkable display of public spirit was the one bright note in a very sad time. 11. The word "this" in line 5 refers to_______. (A) its special atmosphere (B) the Industrial Revolution (C) the spectacular natural beauty

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(D) the Lake District 12. The district's principal industry is_______. (A) fell-walking (B) snow-skiing (C) sheep-farming (D) animal-hunting 13. Because the sheep in the hills are unfenced toot-and-mouth disease might _______. (A) spread beyond the lakes (B) annihilate thousands of horses (C) lead to the virtual end of the tourist industry (D) destroy the flocks of sheep completely 14. Why were some hotels described as "enterprising"? (A) Because hundreds of bookings had been cancelled. (B) Because they decided to keep open during the winter. (C) Because they still held dinner parties and young farmers reunions. (D) Because they substituted a training programme of films and simulated climbs. 15. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true during Christmas time in 1968? (A) The seasonal dances, festivals and other social occasions were abandoned. (B) The weather in the Lake District was ideal for brisk outdoor activities. (C) The foxes were stalking closer to the farms and the flocks of turkeys. (D) The ice was bearing on some of the lakes in the district. Questions 16-20 Why Men Explode Although women get angry just as often as men, rage remains the prototypical male emotion. "My kids still talk about my 'freak-outs,'" says Kim Garretson, 54, a corporate strategist in Minneapolis, who once erupted into volcanic fur5; in a restaurant when served a still-frozen entre2e. "1 didn't express much of anything, but once in a while, I'd just blow." Why do so many men lose their tempers? "The rage comes because there's so much frustration when you cut off something that is you. Yet that's what men do, because they're afraid that if you give emotions an inch, they'll take a mile," says psychologist Kenneth W. Christian, PhD, author of Your Own Worst Enemy. "If you don't learn how to work with your emotions, you're a shadow figure, a small incomplete version of yourself. It's only a matter of time until the house of cards that you are falls apart." For Kim Garretson, that day came four years ago when he was diagnosed with prostate cancer. As often happens when illness strikes men, he realized he had nothing to lose, and everything to gain, by letting himself feel. "I'm no longer afraid of expressing almost any emotion," he says. "I get anger out with my quick, sharp tongue and move on. I use humor as an outlet, I've reconnected with old friends. I talk about the big questions of life. 1 search for spiritual meaning." Guys, Try These In his Dirty Harry days, Clint Eastwood never flinched. Now as a husband, father and Oscar-winning director of movies that explore the depths of men's souls, the tough guy has turned tender--but not talkative. "The men who hide their emotions the most may; in fact be the most sensitive," observes Christian. Yet men can become more emotionally expressive without tears or fears. Here are some ways to start: ? Develop a creative outlet. Hobbies like painting or playing a musical instrument can tap into a man's soul. Remember that much of the world's greatest art, music and literature was created by the allegedly emotionally challenged sex. ? Release stress and anger through exercise. "When you get to the breaking point where you just want to put your head through a wall, taking a ten-minute time-out isn't enough to calm down," says Westover, who in moments of extreme emotion finds a place to drop to the floor and do push-ups. ? Try' expressing "a little" emotion. "Start with feelings you can control, find a sympathetic ear and use the term 'a little,'" suggests Coleman, Saying you feel "a little" sad or "a little" scared feels safer

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than a full declaration of vulnerability. ?Lean into the discomfort. "Rather than avoiding a feeling that you're not sure how to handle, move toward it," says psychologist Travis Bradbury, PhD, co-author of The Emotional Intelligence Quick Book. "Learning to handle emotions takes time and practice, because you need to retrain your brain, but it does get easier." 16. Kim Garretson, a 54-year-old corporate strategist, once got very angry when_______. (A) diagnosed with lung cancer (B) given a take musical instrument (C) dragged into a mountainous trip (D) served cold food in a restaurant 17. "They'll take a mile." (para. 2), 'they' refers to_______. (A) psychologists (B) cards (C) emotions (D) friends 18. If you fail to learn how to work with your emotions,_______. (A) you will sooner or later break down (B) you will be an active figure in shadow boxing (C) you will be afraid of expressing almost any emotion (D) you will spend more time searching for spiritual meaning 19. Which of the following ways to control emotions is NOT recommended in the passage? (A) To talk as much as possible. (B) To lean into the discomfort. (C) To develop a creative outlet. (D) To try expressing "a little" emotion. 20. What main idea is discussed in the passage? (A) How to develop your emotions. (B) How to check your emotions. (C) How to handle your emotions. (D) How to express your emotions. Questions 21-25 "You're off to the World Economic Forum?" asked the Oxford economist, enviously. "How very impressive. They've never invited me." Three days later, t queued in the snow outside the conference center in Davos, standing behind mink coals and cashmere overcoats, watched over by' Swiss policemen with machineguns. "Reporting press? You can't come in here. Side entrance, please." I stood in line again, this time behind Puffa jackets and Newsweek journalists, waiting to collect my orange badge. Once inside. I found that the seminar I wanted to go to was being held ill a half-empty room. '"You can't sit here. All seats are reserved for white badges. Coloured badges have to stand." An acquaintance invited me to a dinner he was hosting: "There are people I'd like you to meet." The green-badged Forum employee stopped me at the door. "This is a participants' dinner. Orange badges are not allowed." Then, later, reluctantly: "If you're coming in. please can you turn your badge around? Diners may be upset if they see you're a colour." "Why does anyone put up with being treated like this?" t asked a Financial Times correspondent. "Because we all live in hope of becoming white badges," he said. "Then we'll know what's reall3 going on." A leading British businessman was wearing a white badge, but it bore a small logo on the top left-hand corner: GLT. "What's a GLT?" I asked. Ah, he said. "well, it's a Davos club. I'm a Global Leader for Tomorrow." "That sounds very important," I said. "Yes." He said, "t thought so myself until I bumped into the man &o d sponsored me. on the way to my first meeting. I asked him if he was coming: and he said, 'Oh no, dear boy, I don't bother with that any, longer. I'm not a GLT any, more, I'm an IGWEL.' What's an IGWEL?' I asked him. ‘A member of tile Informal Group of World Economic Leaders of Today."

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The World Economic Forum has employed a simple psychological truth--that nothing is more desirable than that which excludes us--to brilliant effect. Year after Fear, its participants apply. to return, in the hope that this time they'll be a little closer to the real elite. Next year, they, too, might be invited to the private receptions for Bill Clinton, Kofi Annan or Bill Gates. instead of having to stand on the conference center's steps like teenage rock fans. It's the sheer concentration of individuals in possession of power, wealth or knowledge that makes the privately run Forum so desirable to its participants. The thousand chief executives who attend its annual meeting control, between them, more than 70 percent of international trade. Every year, they are joined by a couple of dozen presidents and prime ministers, by senior journalists, a changing selection of leading thinkers, academics and diplomats, and by rising stars of the business world. Access to the meeting is by invitation only, costs several thousand pounds a time for business participants,and is ruthlessly controlled. 2l. "Mink" in line 4 refers to ____ (A) colored badges (B) impressive artificial hide (C) expensive thick fur (D)jackets designed for GLT 22. V,/e learn from the passage that orange badges represent (A) forum employees (B) conference correspondents (C) senior diplomats (D) leading thinkers 23. "Because we all live in hope of becoming white badges." In this sentence ‘white badges' refer to_______. (A) former presidents (B) senior journalists (C) leading academics (D) chief executives 24. Which of the following does NOT suggest that the forum is ruthlessly controlled'? (A) Participants must hold letters of invitation. (B) Participants should queue in the snow outside. C) Swiss policemen have to carry. machine-guns. (D) Forum employees could check anybody if they wish. 25. According to the article, which of the following statements about badges is true? (A) The Forum employee wear green badges. (B) The participant wear colored badges. (C) The journalists wear white badges. (D) The executives wear orange badges. Questions 26-30 Nutritional statements that depend on observation or anecdote should be given serious consideration, but consideration should also be given to the physical and psychological quirks of the observer. The significance attached to an experimental conclusion depends, in part, on the scientific credentials of the experimentalist; similarly, the significance of selected observations depends, again in part, on the preconceptions of the observer. Regimes that are proposed by people who do not look as if they enjoyed their food, and who do not themselves have a well-fed air, may not be ideal for normal people. Graham Lusk, who combined ex

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